Verses that disprove the trinity.

[Towerwatchman]

Messiah is the Holy Spirit (2 Cor 3:17).

Back to the original question. There’s a difference between Jesus being in two places at once, and Jesus being in the same place as two different people. At the baptism you have the spirit descending on Jesus. It’s two individuals in one place. So answer the question did Jesus descend on Jesus at the baptism

 

[Photine]

Back to the original question. There’s a difference between Jesus being in two places at once, and Jesus being in the same place as two different people. At the baptism you have the spirit descending on Jesus. It’s two individuals in one place. So answer the question did Jesus descend on Jesus at the baptism

Your entire argument is that Jesus aka God can't be in two places at once.

 

[Towerwatchman]

Messiah is the Spirit (2 Cor 3:17).

Obviously you are unable or unwilling to answer the question.
So let's dumb it down. If the messiah is the HS and Jesus is the messiah, how did Jesus descend on Himself at the baptism.?

 

[Photine]

Obviously you are unable or unwilling to answer the question.
So let's dumb it down. If the messiah is the HS and Jesus is the messiah, how did Jesus descend on Himself at the baptism.?

Figure it out on your own.

 

[Towerwatchman]

Your entire argument is that Jesus aka God can't be in two places at once.

Read through the tread, never claimed that Jesus cannot be in two places at once. My question has always been, [and it there for you to read] is how is Jesus able to be two separate individuals in the same place?
care to answer that.

 

[Towerwatchman]

Figure it out on your own.

Check mate.
You can't defend your own nonsense.

 

[Photine]

Check mate.
You can't defend your own nonsense.

Let me know when you deal with Matt 11:27, 2 Cor 3:17, Lam 4:20, etc.

P.s.: me choosing not to respond to your blasphemous, carnal questions doesn't mean I can't.

 

[Photine]

2 Sam 23:2
“The Spirit of the Lord spoke through me; his word was on my tongue.

Lam 4:20
The breath of our nostrils, the anointed of the Lord, was taken in their pits, of whom we said, Under his shadow we shall live among the heathen.

Ps 33:6
By the word of the Lord were the heavens made; and all the host of them by the breath of his mouth.

 

[Towerwatchman]

Let me know when you deal with Matt 11:27, 2 Cor 3:17, Lam 4:20, etc.

P.s.: me choosing not to respond to your blasphemous, carnal questions doesn't mean I can't.

If the above verses did not help you all day why do think it will help you now? We know that Jesus possesses omnipresence, but not poly consciousness.

 

[Towerwatchman]

2 Sam 23:2
“The Spirit of the Lord spoke through me; his word was on my tongue.

Lam 4:20
The breath of our nostrils, the anointed of the Lord, was taken in their pits, of whom we said, Under his shadow we shall live among the heathen.

Ps 33:6
By the word of the Lord were the heavens made; and all the host of them by the breath of his mouth.

So what? You can post verses.

 

[Towerwatchman]

Talk to you tomorrow.

 

[Photine]

So what? You can post verses.

All those verses equate Messiah with the Spirit but since it does not harmonize with your false beliefs you say so what..

 

[Photine]

If the above verses did not help you all day why do think it will help you now? We know that Jesus possesses omnipresence, but not poly consciousness.

Poly consciousness? Oh wow..

Let me know when you accept Matt 11:27 and 2 Cor 3:17.

 

[Photine]

Talk to you tomorrow.

I can't wait for more "dId jEsUs dEsCeNd oN hImSeLf?"..

 

[DoctrinesofGraceBapt]

DoctrinesofGraceBapt said:
Acts 16:6-7 isn't 2 Corinthians 3:17. There is no evidence at all that the Holy Spirit is being referenced in 2 Corinthians 3:17.

Not an argument.

Yes it is. I asked for evidence justifying your understanding of 2 Corintithing 3:17, and you jumped to Acts. How a phrase is used in Acts doesn't dictate how it must be used in 2 Corinthians. Therefore, I still say there is no evidence at all that the Holy Spirit is being referenced in 2 Corinthians 3:17.

DoctrinesofGraceBapt said:
God's name is YHWH.

No, it's Jesus.
2 Peter 1:1
Simon Peter, a servant and apostle of Jesus Christ, To those who through the righteousness of our God and Savior Jesus Christ have received a faith as precious as ours:

Jesus being our God and Savior doesn't make God's name Jesus. It makes the second person's human name Jesus.

DoctrinesofGraceBapt said:
Jesus is the only name by which we can be saved. How does that make God's name Jesus?

Because only God's Name is the only name by which we can be saved.

Another assertion unjustified by Scripture. Jesus' human name is Jesus. Jesus' divine name is YHWH. Logically, statement affirming that Jesus is God cannot define God's name as Jesus without axiomatic assumptions denied by you being a binitarian.

DoctrinesofGraceBapt said:
That's a different verse. We are to confess with our mouth Jesus is Lord, aka YHWH. It doesn't says God's name is Jesus.

Paul is saying that Jesus is the Name of the Lord in Romans 10:13.

If words convey meaning, that's not what the words "if you confess with your mouth that Jesus is Lord" means.

DoctrinesofGraceBapt said:
The name God gave to Jesus is YHWH.

Nope. The Name God gave to Jesus is.. Jesus.

In Luke, yes. In Philippians, nope.

God Bless

 

[Photine]

Yes it is. I asked for evidence justifying your understanding of 2 Corintithing 3:17, and you jumped to Acts. How a phrase is used in Acts doesn't dictate how it must be used in 2 Corinthians. Therefore, I still say there is no evidence at all that the Holy Spirit is being referenced in 2 Corinthians 3:17.

Acts 16:6-7 equates "the Holy Spirit" with "the Spirit".

2 Cor 3:17 calls Messiah "the Spirit", which is the Holy Spirit.

Jesus being our God and Savior doesn't make God's name Jesus. It makes the second person's human name Jesus.

Only to a pagan like you.

Acts 4:12 says salvation is only found in Jesus and in His Name.

Meaning our God and Savior's Name is Jesus.

It's not merely the name of some human as you blasphemously claim.

Another assertion unjustified by Scripture.

ERROR.

Romans 10:13
For “everyone who calls on the name of the Lord will be saved.”

If words convey meaning, that's not what the words "if you confess with your mouth that Jesus is Lord" means.

Verse 9 is directly related to verse 13.

Deal with it.

 

[Photine]

In Luke, yes. In Philippians, nope.

YUP... The Name God gives to Jesus in John 17:11 AND Php 2:9 is.. Jesus.

Php 2:9-10
9Therefore God exalted him to the highest place
and gave him the name that is above every name,

10that at the name of JESUS every knee should bow,
in heaven and on earth and under the earth,

11and every tongue acknowledge that JESUS CHRIST is Lord,
to the glory of God the Father.

Deal with it.

 

[Towerwatchman]

All those verses equate Messiah with the Spirit but since it does not harmonize with your false beliefs you say so what..

What false believes?
You have a serious contradiction.
And I believe you should address the contradiction before we continue.
At the baptism, we have Jesus and the Holy Spirit present in the same location at the same time. You have two individuals, operating by thier own free will.
Following your logic to a reasonable conclusion, Jesus chose to descended on Jesus at the baptism.
Please explain

 

[DoctrinesofGraceBapt]

DoctrinesofGraceBapt said:
Such claims are utterly irrelevant given the unsurpassable gap between the two: only some bow to Cyrus while all bow to Jesus.

Not at all, for that is the difference between the type and the actual future event that the type only portraits.
In what was known of the world to them, all bowed to Cyrus also and that is the type.

The Chinese didn't bow to Cyrus. The Greeks didn't bow to Cyrus. India didn't bow to Cyrus. How can you with a straight face claim all bowed to Cyrus when neither history nor Isaiah 45 say this.

DoctrinesofGraceBapt said:
You literally had to rewrite Matthew 28:19 to pretend I'm wrong. And, try reading John 20:28 as opposed to rewriting it.

Not at all and this same kind of language is used today also, for instead of saying "in the name of the Father and in the name of the Son and in the name of the Holy Spirit", Jesus made the same thing easier by saying it like this "in the name of the Father, the Son and the Holy Spirit" but it means three names or titles and not just one.

That's called rewriting Matthew 28:19. But even if your view "Jesus made the same thing easier" was true, why reference the three? You reject the personhood of the Holy Spirit, yet we are to be baptized, according to your rewriting of Matthew 28:19, in the name of the Holy Spirit. How does that make sense at all?

Again, the proof lies in the fact that just prior to this Jesus proclaimed that all authority in heaven and earth had been given unto him and which means that he didn't have it to start with but that God the Father gave it unto and it was only upon this that he then speaks of the three titles of authority through which they were to go into the world and preach

Why do people who reject the full deity of Jesus never interact with the concept of the incarnation. He emptied himself to walk and live as man. Therefore, being exalted and authority being given to him as a man doesn't imply he wasn't God.

God Bless

 

[DoctrinesofGraceBapt]

Yes it is. I asked for evidence justifying your understanding of 2 Corintithing 3:17, and you jumped to Acts. How a phrase is used in Acts doesn't dictate how it must be used in 2 Corinthians. Therefore, I still say there is no evidence at all that the Holy Spirit is being referenced in 2 Corinthians 3:17.

Acts 16:6-7 equates "the Holy Spirit" with "the Spirit".
2 Cor 3:17 calls Messiah "the Spirit", which is the Holy Spirit.

What part of "How a phrase is used in Acts doesn't dictate how it must be used in 2 Corinthians." is so confusing?

DoctrinesofGraceBapt said:
Jesus being our God and Savior doesn't make God's name Jesus. It makes the second person's human name Jesus.

Only to a pagan like you.

The response of the immature.

Acts 4:12 says salvation is only found in Jesus and in His Name.
Meaning our God and Savior's Name is Jesus.
It's not merely the name of some human as you blasphemously claim.

There is no logical connection between "salvation is only found in Jesus and in His Name." and "God's Name is Jesus." You are just declaring things with out reason or rational. "the name of some human"? Are you reading what I'm saying at all? Jesus is God; Jesus is man. The name he goes by as a man is Jesus. The name he Goes by as God is YHWH.

Besides, none of these verses say God's name is Jesus. Hosea says God name is YHWH. I win. You are interpreting verses to arrive at your conclusion. I'm simply quoting them.

DoctrinesofGraceBapt said:
Another assertion unjustified by Scripture.

Romans 10:13
For “everyone who calls on the name of the Lord will be saved.”

Amen, Romans 10:13 For “everyone who calls on the name of YHWH will be saved.”

DoctrinesofGraceBapt said:
If words convey meaning, that's not what the words "if you confess with your mouth that Jesus is Lord" means.

Verse 9 is directly related to verse 13.
Deal with it.

I have, both verses recognize Jesus' divine name is YHWH. Deal with it.

DoctrinesofGraceBapt said:
In Luke, yes. In Philippians, nope.

YUP... The Name God gives to Jesus in John 17:11 AND Php 2:9 is.. Jesus.
Php 2:9-10
9Therefore God exalted him to the highest place
and gave him the name that is above every name,

10that at the name of JESUS every knee should bow,
in heaven and on earth and under the earth,

11and every tongue acknowledge that JESUS CHRIST is Lord,
to the glory of God the Father.

Deal with it.

I have. In Luke, God gives Jesus the name Jesus. In Philippians 2 and in Romans 10:9,13, God gives Jesus the name YHWH. Deal with it.

God Bless