The Israelite religion and the apostles

Maybe you need to go to school, so you can understand english--You already know 100% the JW,s do NOT worship Jesus.


But in their writings they sometimes affirm it.

The light of this truth cannot be extinguished no matter how hard they try.

It is nice to see.
 
But in their writings they sometimes affirm it.

The light of this truth cannot be extinguished no matter how hard they try.

It is nice to see.
I have been there since 1961 and we NEVER worshipped Jesus. You are stuck in the past, its 2023 get up to date if you speak about JW,s, and stop deceiving others.
 
I have been there since 1961 and we NEVER worshipped Jesus.

That's your loss, because the worship of Jesus constitutes "true worship" (Revelation 5:13).

Our Kingdom Ministry—2003: God’s unfailing purpose is that all intelligent creation be united in true worship. (Rev. 5:13) (page 1)
https://wol.jw.org/en/wol/d/r1/lp-e/202003441

You are stuck in the past

You are stuck in heresy.

stop deceiving others.

Stop being a heretic.
 
That's your loss, because the worship of Jesus constitutes "true worship" (Revelation 5:13).

Our Kingdom Ministry—2003: God’s unfailing purpose is that all intelligent creation be united in true worship. (Rev. 5:13) (page 1)
https://wol.jw.org/en/wol/d/r1/lp-e/202003441



You are stuck in heresy.



Stop being a heretic.

Yes true worship to YHWH(Jehovah) alone. You must have missed in the OT--I am YHWH(Jehovah)beside me( singular) there is no other God.
 
If you wish to discuss something, lets discuss reality, not errors from the past. God forgives repented errors. so move on.
What you previously wrote is from the past so therefore by your own standards should not be believed.
 
Easy - Mat 8:6, and Mat 15:25 for a couple of recorded instances.
There are enough definitions of the English word "prayer," including definition No. 5 Oxford English Dictionary (a thing that you hope for very much) to make the issue of whether Mat 8:6, 15:25 constitute "prayer" in the English sense irrelevant.

Given that Jesus was regarded as a "god" in the English sense, further senses of the word prayer are envisaged.

I suppose I was thinking of the highest form of prayer, i.e. the Luk 18:11, Luk 18:13 senses, where the prayers to God commenced with the Ὁ θεός form of address.
 
There are enough definitions of the English word "prayer," including definition No. 5 Oxford English Dictionary (a thing that you hope for very much) to make the issue of whether Mat 8:6, 15:25 constitute "prayer" in the English sense irrelevant.
Asking God for help is always prayer. SImple as that.
 
The speakers in Mat 8:6 and Mat 15:25 did not address "God," as did the speakers in Luk 18:11, Luk 18:13.
It takes an Exceedingly sharp Hermeneutical Broadaxe to split a hair that fine as a "Prayer definition".

Asking God for help is prayer.
 
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It takes an Exceedingly sharp Hermeneutical Broadaxe to split a hair that fine as a "Prayer definition".

Asking God for help is prayer.
Asking a man to do something, and asking God to do something, are distinguishable. I don't think it's a fine distinction.
 
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