Roger Thornhill
Well-known member
Angels are called sons of God.But NOT The Divine Son of God.
Angels are called sons of God.But NOT The Divine Son of God.
NO angel is called THE Son of God and NO angel is Divine. They are created beings.Angels are called sons of God.
I am interested ONLY in Bibles in use today.I will give you a hint. Aside from the original Hebrew it's the only and first version of the OT that the apostles quoted in Greek.
The LXX is certainly in use today. Especially by those who read Greek.I am interested ONLY in Bibles in use today.
However, I wasn't only speaking of the new creation, but rather that God was looking ahead to Jesus for the redemption and restoration that would come through him, in order to create anything at all in the first creation.There is no doubt that a new creation exists.
But the original creation also exists and κόσμος is part of it at J 1:10. It's not possible for those who don't know him to be part of the new creation and that also applies to those who did not accept him in verse 11.
Jesus didn't have to be present for the world to be made through him and I will give an example why also.You are right to be critical of Trinitarians that assert doctrine that is not explicit in Scripture.
But it seems that you are doing this here.
John 1:10 the world was made through him, and the world knew him not. (ASV)
You can spin a good yarn and so do Trinitarians. But what is absent from your story is scriptural proof for your interpretation.Jesus didn't have to be present for the world to be made through him and I will give an example why also.
I am an artist and paint with oils and acrylics on canvas, and many times I will paint a picture on the canvas from a scene from a picture or something that came from my thoughts and when I am done with the painting, I can truly say, I painted that painting through that picture or image in my thoughts and even though the picture or image in my thoughts didn't touch a paint brush or the canvas.
This is what I am say, for God was looking ahead to Jesus for what he would create to become in the end, for he knew in advance that it would first be corrupted by sin and therefore he determined in advance its remedy first and which would come through the future coming of his human Son Jesus Christ.
If God didn't have in mind a remedy for the fall in advance, because of his righteousness, he wouldn't have created any of it at all, because he knew in advance that if he gave the creature who was to be made in his image a free will, that the creatures (man) would disobey him with it and by this corrupt everything he created.
Therefore he created it all through his plan and foreknowledge first for Jesus to be born in the future to redeem and restore a portion of it back to his original purpose in creating it and in order that it would not be created in vain but instead to make it still worth creating.
For without his plan in advance to send Jesus in the future, his creating it all would have had no purpose to it but it would have been created completely in vain and God doesn't do things in vain.
Sorry, but I can not read Greek, and NO English Bible on earth translates Isaiah 9:6 even remotely the way you presented it.The LXX is certainly in use today. Especially by those who read Greek.
I really don't understand why you are not interested in the Bible Paul quoted frequently. If you read Paul you are reading the LXX. So it is used currently and relevant.
ALL things were created BY Jesus Christ.Jesus didn't have to be present for the world to be made through him and I will give an example why also.
I am an artist and paint with oils and acrylics on canvas, and many times I will paint a picture on the canvas from a scene from a picture or something that came from my thoughts and when I am done with the painting, I can truly say, I painted that painting through that picture or image in my thoughts and even though the picture or image in my thoughts didn't touch a paint brush or the canvas.
This is what I am say, for God was looking ahead to Jesus for what he would create to become in the end, for he knew in advance that it would first be corrupted by sin and therefore he determined in advance its remedy first and which would come through the future coming of his human Son Jesus Christ.
If God didn't have in mind a remedy for the fall in advance, because of his righteousness, he wouldn't have created any of it at all, because he knew in advance that if he gave the creature who was to be made in his image a free will, that the creatures (man) would disobey him with it and by this corrupt everything he created.
Therefore he created it all through his plan and foreknowledge first for Jesus to be born in the future to redeem and restore a portion of it back to his original purpose in creating it and in order that it would not be created in vain but instead to make it still worth creating.
For without his plan in advance to send Jesus in the future, his creating it all would have had no purpose to it but it would have been created completely in vain and God doesn't do things in vain.
As I said and will again, Jesus as the agency of the creation didn't have to have a hands on part in it to be that agency, just as long as God was looking in advance for him to Jesus to give it purpose for God to create it all.You can spin a good yarn and so do Trinitarians. But what is absent from your story is scriptural proof for your interpretation.
At John 1:10 cosmos comes into existence through the Word. That is δια used to represent personal intermediate agency.
What you are missing is a scriptural parallel. Where does God pre-create through a plan in Scripture?
This is just as valid a question as asking a Trinitarian for proof of what they claim, don't you agree?
As I said and will again, Jesus as the agency of the creation didn't have to have a hands on part in it to be that agency, just as long as God was looking in advance for him to Jesus to give it purpose for God to create it all.
Furthermore, in Romans 8:29 Paul is very clearly speaking of Jesus as a man when he says the following about him.
Romans 8:29, "for those whom he (God) foreknew them he also predestined to be conformed to the image of his (human) Son that he (his human Son) might be the firstborn among many (human) brethren.
Jesus couldn't be the firstborn among many human brethren as Michael the Arch Angel or as God but only as a true human being like those many brethren who were predestined to be conformed to his image.
IrrelevantConcerning your words in the bold blue, what do you believe God created that he didn't first have planned to create?
There are some things that ought to be understood without God drawing you a picture also and this is one of them.
Do you believe that God didn't plan his creation in his mind first Roger? Do those made in his image ever created anything without first planning it in their thoughts or their human logos?
Where did the creation come from then, did God just mindlessly speak it forth?
For there was nothing from which he created it all except for what came forth from his mind or Logos and the Bible is clear that Jesus was the firstborn in God's mind, thought or Logos and it was as a human being that he was the firstborn also and even though Adam and many other human beings came forth in the actual creation first.
Therefore Paul is speaking of him as the firstborn human being in God's plan and purpose, even though Adam and many others came into existence as human beings before Jesus did.
This also proves that God was looking to Jesus in advance of the creation as the model that God wanted those created in his image to be modeled after and also the one who would give purpose to what he would create.
By the way, I totally disagree with your idea that Jesus pre existed his being a human being as an angel or Michael the Arch Angel or any other of the OT angels either and Hebrews chapters one and two are clear on that.
However Jesus was a messenger of the NT and not of the OT and just like Malachi chapter 3 reveals also.
However God never said to any of those OT angels, "you are my Son (his human heir), this day have I begotten you" but actually this was first spoken to the human being David and from whose lineage Jesus came and as per Psalm 2:7 and then God also spoke this of David's Son Solomon and as per 2 Samuel 7:14.
Do you believe that Jesus was Michael the Arch Angel or some other angel and then was sent to become a man, if so what do you have to base this on other than speculation being you want to think that you don't speculate.Speculation is not proof of anything. It's no better than what Trinitarians do.
As per Colossians 1, he is the firstborn from the dead.
His resurrected image
Irrelevant
No, he is the firstborn from the dead, according to Paul at 1 Colossians.
I am Orthodox Oneness. I consider Άγγελος (angel) to be a function and not an ontology.
None of this solves the problem at John 1:10 where cosmos was made through him.
This cosmos is not the group in Romans 8 as they did not know him or receive him.
Are you claiming that it was God's plan for Adam to sin and cause the world of unbelievers? They don't conform to Christ's image.
Do you believe that Jesus was Michael the Arch Angel or some other angel and then was sent to become a man, if so what do you have to base this on other than speculation being you want to think that you don't speculate.
You see, I know quite a bit about the Jehovah's Witnesses and I know that they base much of what they believe on speculation also.
For instance, this idea of their that only the 144,000 will have a heavenly kingdom while the other believes will be on the earth.
For starters, it is really quite lame to take the 144,000 as symbolic concerning the 12 tribes of Israel that they are mentioned to come from and then to take the number 144,000 as completely literal.
The fact is, that both the tribes and the number 144,000 are symbolic and just like the whole book of Revelation is also.
Furthermore, there is not one shred of evidence from the scriptures that there are different classes of believers that will have different dwellings or dwelling places, for all of God's people will be together in one single Kingdom in the New Heaven and upon the New Earth.
These are just some of the rather ridiculous things that I know about your form of the great apostasy that the whole that would call itself "Christianity" has also fallen into.
By the way, I never said that it was actually God's plan that Adam would sin but only that God knew in advance that he would sin because God gave him a free will and allowed the Devil to tempt him.
God knows the end from the beginning and therefore before he even thought of creating anything, he determined in advance to have a solution for the fall through that would come in the future of the creation through Christ Jesus his human Son.
Concerning your idea that Jesus is the firstborn from the dead only,
that is nonsense and actually Jesus was begotten of God (Psalm 2:7) on two days of created time, once at his birth when he was brought into this world and as per Hebrews 1:5-6 and then again after he literally and completely died for our sins on the cross and was begotten again from the dead by God as per Hebrew 13:30-34.
Sorry but Colossian 1:15-16 reveal Jesus to be the firstborn of the creation to be in God's visible image and just like Romans 8:29 reveals likewise and yes this includes the fact that he was the firstborn also from the dead but this doesn't even answer to the my point I was making about this passage.
For being the saints were predestined to be conformed to his image as a human being, this means that he was predestined before any of them to be the image of the invisible God also and therefore it still stands that this is not referring to Jesus in any pre existing life before he was born in the flesh.
In other words, as per Paul in Romans 8:29, the image that the saints were predestined to be conformed to and which was a glorified human being in the image of the invisible God, had to come first in God's plan and purpose in order for the others to be predestined to be conformed to him and it is not speaking of Jesus as an angel or as God but rather as a glorified human being in God's image.
Sorry dude but you are just another of the many tongues of false doctrine from the Harlot Mystery Babylon for just as in literal Babylon God divided the destructive unity of Shinar with the different languages, so he did also with the destructive unity of Mystery Babylon by splitting them up into the various tongues of doctrines and each have some doctrines that are correct or close mixed with others that are totally false.
This way, he gave the world a warning and sign that they are not to be trusted for the truth being they all claim to have a corner on it but disagree with the scriptures and one another and as per his warning also in Isaiah 2:22, "cease from trusting men in whose nostrils is the breath of life, for why should they be esteemed".
In case you haven't understood me yet, I believe that all organized forms of what would be called "Christianity" are in the clutches of the Apostasy that we were warned would be coming in the scriptures and that includes Jehovah's witnesses also and I believe the true church is scattered in the world and just Daniel spoke of in chapter 12 of his prophecy.
I really get a kick out of your idea that it is irrelevant that God had to have planed the creation before he created it, for it is far from irrelevant to your comment that you made about this, but I will let you have your delusion on it just the same.
You need get free of those who are teaching you, for they are leading you astray just like those who were at one time teaching me also, but there is no difference between the trins and your form of the apostasy, for they are both teaching false doctrines equally.
ERROR, this is why you have no rebuttal, because the apostle do speak of God in flesh in the "LIKENESS", LIKENESS", likeness of, of, of, a man. supportive scripture, Philippians 2:6 "Who, being in the form of God, thought it not robbery to be equal with God:"So I will say it once again, in Philippians 2:5-11, Paul never speaks of Jesus as anything other than a human being in regards to his actual ontology and substance but he does speak of him as a human being starting from birth in the form of God and which means that he had God given authority unlike any other man.
I'm not dogmatic as to the identity of the Word. In fact if the Bible never mentioned Michael no doctrine would be changed.
I will say that there is more evidence that Michael was one of the names of Christ than you have provided for your explanation.
For example we know Michael exists. We don't have any evidence that God pre-created through His "plan" before He really created everything.
I did not say he was firstborn from the dead only. I refuted your notion for how Paul said he was firstborn from t
Nope, but the problem is with you in your attempting to understand spiritual truths of God from your fleshy mind instead of by the Spirit and you are wasting your time therefore, for all you will end up with is false religion and just like the trins and oneness and many unitarians also.You should try to do more than make a point.
You remain refuted at J 1:10.
Now, instead of trying to divert from the subject, how about addressing J 1:10?
This one verse so far refutes you and you cannot keep running away from it.
In what way was the Word used by God to create the cosmos which includes both believers and unbelievers?
If you say through a "plan" show a biblical parallel where anyone "creates" through a "plan" ahead of time.
Oh but it does to anyone who is being led by the Spirit and therefore can hear what the Spirit says about it, but then again, it will be hard for those whose carnal minds are busy in their attempt to understand it correctly, to hear anything from the Spirit.Romans 8 does not cut it.
He doesn't know or read Greek either, and he is nearly always wrong when he refers to it. The only thing you can reliably trust from him are the direct quotations from the sources he provides. He doesn't know how or doesn't have the skills necessary to apply the things he reads. Take his statement about angels being a function and not an ontology as an example. In Hebrews 1:4 the term "angels" is used to refer to the beings that exist in heaven. There is absolutely no reference to their function anywhere leading up to the verse.Sorry, but I can not read Greek, and NO English Bible on earth translates Isaiah 9:6 even remotely the way you presented it.
How about referring to translations of 9:6 in Bibles used in CHURCH.
(Emphasis added.) The author is clearly using the term to refer to a class of beings. The truth is that the term "angel" is used both ways. I say this to warn you that you should take whatever he says with a pound of salt.Hebrews 1:1-4 said:Long ago, at many times and in many ways, God spoke to our fathers by the prophets, but in these last days he has spoken to us by his Son, whom he appointed the heir of all things, through whom also he created the world. He is the radiance of the glory of God and the exact imprint of his nature, and he upholds the universe by the word of his power. After making purification for sins, he sat down at the right hand of the Majesty on high, having become as much superior to angels as the name he has inherited is more excellent than theirs.
I will stick with Matthew, which you are ignoring like the plague, while rolling around laughing out loudYes and the above keeps me laughing also, for I told you that the prophecy was intended to have two fulfillments and the Hebrew word "virgin" can mean either a real virgin or a young woman and therefore it applied to Isaiah's wife as a young woman and to Mary the mother of Jesus as a true virgin.
You are just being willingly ignorant of the context of Isaiah 7:14, for the proof of what I said is right there in the context and also in the chapters before and after concerning the meaning of the names of Isaiah's sons as messages from God to the people, for that is what they were.
Therefore the meaning of the name "Emmanuel" given to Isaiah's second son, was in its first fulfillment a message to the King and people of Judah and Jerusalem that although the the two Kings Resin of Aram and Pekah King of Israel were conspiring to overtake them, God would be with them and their plot would therefore fail.
For heaven sake, read the context of the chapter starting with the first verse, for the meaning of name of "Emmanuel" given to Isaiah's second son was a sign from God that King Resin of Aram and King Pekah of Israel would not be succeed in their plan to overthrow the King and the people of Judah and Jerusalem.
By the way, doesn't it just bug you to no end that even many of your more sensible trin scholars would agree with me on this?
Therefore following its first fulfillment, as the meaning of the name "Emmanuel" as a message that God would be with his people to save them from King Resin and King Pekah, it applies in a similar way with Jesus as being a message from God that through the redemption and atonement that Jesus would make for us, God would be with us in a way in which we never would have experienced before.
For through Jesus, God now actually dwells within the hearts of all of his people and that is what the sign of the virgin birth of Jesus and his name means to us.
That is precisely the problem, for you are actually rejecting the true context of Isaiah 7 and therefore you cannot possibly be sticking to the word of God but instead you are sticking to the ignorant trins who taught you, for they are wrong.
First off, the fact that Michael exists is no proof at all that Michael or any other angel that also existed prior to Jesus was Jesus as a pre existing being.
Secondly you are rejecting the inspired word of God from the Book of Hebrews, for very clearly it reveals that God never spoke to any of those OT angels and called any of them his Son in the singular.
Thirdly, you are totally wrong about God not having a pre determined plan and that he knew his elect starting with Jesus before the foundation of the world, for God told Jeremiah in Jeremiah 1:5, "before I formed you in the womb, I knew you" and the Hebrew word translated as "knew," is the same word used for when a man becomes intimate with his wife.
You will see the same evidence from the words of David in Psalm 139 as well, for with God, his foreknowledge is as real to him as if a person was already created and your problem is like most on this forum, they are trying to understand God through what comes natural to their thinking and this is called "the flesh" in the Bible.
Read 1 Corinthians chapters 1-3, for their is the teaching from the wisdom of the flesh (the natural mind of men) and there is the teaching from the wisdom of the Holy Spirit of God and there can be no compromise either, for if there is, then the truth will be muddied up with error.
This is what was wrong in the church of Corinth and it is what contributed greatly to the present apostasy that we are seeing today and the reason why we have so many different tongues of false teaching that is causing the confusion in the world about the truth of God
You didn't refute anything actually, for to start with you missed my point and the point was that God predestined and foreknew Jesus as a human being and also as the one in which all his elect would be conformed to the image of.
All that God created was conceived first in his mind = his Logos and the creation started with Jesus being the firstborn in his mind (Revelation 3:14) and even though in the order of the actual creation itself he wasn't the first born.
For the word firstborn with God has nothing to do with who comes first in the actual creation but who comes first in their position with God and therefore it refers to the rank of importance in his plan.
You see this evidence with Jacob and Esau, for although Esau was born first in the order of creation and time, he wasn't the firstborn with God but rather Jacob was and there are other examples of this in the scriptures also.
In fact this is what John the Baptist was saying in John 1:15 when he said of Jesus, "this is him of whom I spoke, who comes after me but has become "ginomai" my superior because he was before me".
I often use this passage with trins because John didn't say that Jesus became his superior because Jesus was God but rather because in God's plan and purpose and his position with God, Jesus was before John the Baptist and just like Jacob was before Esau likewise and that is what first born means with God.
Nope, but the problem is with you in your attempting to understand spiritual truths of God from your fleshy mind instead of by the Spirit and you are wasting your time therefore, for all you will end up with is false religion and just like the trins and oneness and many unitarians also.
For the nature of God and Christ is only the beginning of other truths also in the Bible that are likewise being twisted by the organized religions professing to be God's people.
Sorry but it is important to get you to see that you are doing exactly what you think I am doing with many other doctrines that you believe in and I am speaking of "speculating" here, and that is why I brought it up and therefore it is quite relevant.
ROFLOL, I don't need to run away from anything concerning John 1:10, for I understand it through the wisdom of the Spirit while you are trying to evaluate it through your flesh and so while you think you have it figured correctly, you are mistaken.
First off, the word is Logos and not just the English "Word" and it is from where we get our English word "Logic" and at the center of God's Logos was his plan of creation through Christ, that while he knew in advance that the creation would be corrupted by sin, he had planned in advance for a solution for its redemption and restoration through Christ and his sacrifice.
It was the light of hope in God's foreknowledge, for all sinners and whether they would believe or not is irrelevant, because God provided a plan in the future coming of Jesus as a remedy for all of them, whether they would receive it or not, for God is not responsible for sinners rejecting his remedy for their condition in and through Christ Jesus.
As soon as you show me proof that Jesus pre existed as an angel in the scripture and especially when the book of Hebrews refutes any such idea completely.
Oh but it does to anyone who is being led by the Spirit and therefore can hear what the Spirit says about it, but then again, it will be hard for those whose carnal minds are busy in their attempt to understand it correctly, to hear anything from the Spirit.
For it is kind of like talking to someone whose mind is busy elsewhere, for they will never hear a word that you say and such is what happens with those who are led by the wisdom of the flesh when the Spirit would want to reveal the truth unto them, they cannot hear the Spirit for all of the worthless clatter in their attempt to figure it all out with their carnal minds instead.
That is what is being revealed in Revelation, when Jesus said, "let him who has an ear hear what the Spirit is saying", for if you are giving your ear over to the wisdom of the flesh, you cannot hear the Spirit, it is just that simple.
ROFLOL, so you believe in Hebrews 1:5 that when the writer says, "for unto which of the angels did God ever say you are my Son this day have I begotten you", he was speaking of a function and not a celestial being huh? And you are telling me that I am speculating?e
As I said, the identity of the Word before he became flesh is not something for which I am dogmatoc
I see Hebrews supporting my view. Remember "angel" is only a function. If God sends someone to say or do something they are angel/message in function. It's not an ontological term
If you are dogmatic about "plan" as the agent of God with δια then provide an example.
What does Jeremiah have to do woth
You argue on a few examples of prophets and apply it to all humans? That's not warranted and also does not prove your point of
You are philosophizing and not exegeting the Bible. I have no interest in philosophy.
I'm still looking for your scriptural support and specificity grammatical parallels to your very unique view.
ROFLOL, so you believe in Hebrews 1:5 that when the writer says, "for unto which of the angels did God ever say you are my Son this day have I begotten you", he was speaking of a function and not a celestial being huh? And you are telling me that I am speculating?