Because the one God includes more than the Father.So you admit then there are two Gods mentioned just 11 verses apart. How is this not polytheism?
Because the one God includes more than the Father.So you admit then there are two Gods mentioned just 11 verses apart. How is this not polytheism?
The Father is the God mentioned in John 20:17 while Jesus is the God mentioned in John 20:28.
Does the one God in John 20:17 also includes Jesus, yes or no?Because the one God includes more than the Father.
Both are the one God.So according to your Trinitarian view...
The God mentioned in John 20:17 IS NOT the God mentioned in John 20:28.
Yes (John 20:28).So the one God in John 20:17 also includes Jesus?
I’m asking specifically about John 20:17 not 20:28. Does the one God include Jesus in John 20:17, yes or no?Yes (John 20:28).
So when Jesus says “my God” he must also be including himself since the one God can never exclude him right?The one God always includes Jesus.
So when Jesus says “my God” he must also be including himself since the one God can never exclude him right?
Both are the one God.
You’re not answering the question so let me rephrase it. When Jesus said “my God” does he exclude himself from the one God here in John 20:17 or not?He knew He is God the Son and He spoke to God the Father. When Thomas said "my God" to Jesus he (Thomas) knew he could say the same thing to the Father as well.
Jesus was referrimng to the Father, but He (Jesus) knew that "my God" refers to Himself (Jhn 20:28).You’re not answering the question so let me rephrase it. When Jesus said “my God” does he exclude himself from the one God here in John 20:17 or not?
So if he was not referring to himself then Jesus is not the one God referred to in John 20:17 which means there are two Gods in the same chapter.Jesus was referrimng to the Father,
Same idea here, does my God refer only to Jesus or to the trinity?but He (Jesus) knew that "my God" refers to Himself (Jhn 20:28).
Thomas properly referred to Jesus as my Lord and to the Father as my God as he finally sees the father in Jesus just as he told them back in John 14:10Thomas properly referred to the Lord Jesus as "my God." Do you?
Incorrect. Thomas said unto Him (in reference to Jesus)....Thomas properly referred to Jesus as my Lord and to the Father as my God as he finally sees the father in Jesus just as he told them back in John 14:10
So if he was not referring to himself then Jesus is not the one God referred to in John 20:17 which means there are two Gods in the same chapter.Jesus was referrimng to the Father,
Same idea here, does my God refer only to Jesus or to the trinity?but He (Jesus) knew that "my God" refers to Himself (Jhn 20:28).
That’s an interpretation and it’s wrong.Incorrect. Thomas said unto Him (in reference to Jesus)....
BDAG (3rd Edition): Concerning John 20:28 states that theos "certainly refers to Christ" (theos, page 450).
So says your worthless opinion.That’s an interpretation and it’s wrong.
And those are worthless opinions as well. Are you imply these men are infalible??So says your worthless opinion.
Here's more that refute your heresy.
New International Dictionary of New Testament Theology (NIDNTT): Jn. 20:28 contains the unique affirmation of Thomas addressing the Risen Christ as God: "My Lord and my God [ho kyrios mou kai ho theos mou]." (2:81, God, J. Schneider).
Is Jesus the Father?
How is this NOT a STRAWMAN???So you admit then there are two Gods mentioned just 11 verses apart. How is this not polytheism?