Can a person have the Holy Spirit and not know it?

The gender of a noun does not indicate the sex of an object. That’s not how grammar works. Teacher and doctor are masculine in French, even when the teacher or doctor is a woman. A beautiful person is always feminine, une belle personne, even when you’re talking about a handsome guy like me. My soul and my flesh are both feminine, and no part of me is woman. God is He, Father, Son and Spirit.



Pete": The gender of a noun does not indicate the sex of an object.

So are you saying there are no sexes?

and male and female are not?

but we are all not mattering beings?

You sound like Paul.
 
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Pete": The gender of a noun does not indicate the sex of an object.

So are you saying there are no sexes?
No...Grammar and biology do not work together to predict gender or sex.

You're making a point concerning Hebrew grammar. I'm telling you language doesn't work that way.

and male and female are not?

but we are all not mattering beings?
Huh?

You sound like Paul.
If that were true, I'd be good with the claim, That would be an aspiration for me.
 
No...Grammar and biology do not work together to predict gender or sex.

You're making a point concerning Hebrew grammar. I'm telling you language doesn't work that way.

So when the Hebrew say's fe-male, it does not really mean that?

Not sure what your point is.

My point was, and no I am not a linguist, that most the time the HS is feminine in Hebrew but not always.

Thus my question.

Why do Christians say male?

There should be a reason.
 
I personally don't think this is possible, since (being holy) the Holy Spirit would overwhelm our senses when He enters us.
many souls have been trained to believe
by this world that they are nothing
and dont matter and
are judged horribly

yet even all their trials
His Spirit loves these souls very much
 
So when the Hebrew say's fe-male, it does not really mean that?

Not sure what your point is.

My point was, and no I am not a linguist, that most the time the HS is feminine in Hebrew but not always.

Thus my question.

Why do Christians say male?

There should be a reason.

much was corrupted by Rome
plus add on their horrible Mary worship
 
Pete": The gender of a noun does not indicate the sex of an object.

So are you saying there are no sexes?

and male and female are not?

but we are all not mattering beings?

You sound like Paul.
oh paul knows there are male and female.
 
I know this is really hard for you. I can only try to help you:
So, when the Hebrew say's fe-male, it does not really mean that?
No...The word "female" has meaning, and designates sex. "God created us in His image. In the image of God created He us...Male and female He created us." . Male and female prove two sexes...and it's wise to ask, "Where is the female in the image of God?" It is not and cannot be in His spirit. He is not both male and female. He is Who He is. That's His name. But there is a Bride...precious to Him.

The gender of a noun does not designate the sex of the object. La table in French is feminine. A table is not a female.

Not sure what your point is.
That's pretty clear. You asked why we call the Spirit of God "He". You claimed that the Holy Spirit is a female, because "spirit" in Hebrew is feminine. (Interestingly, ruach is masculine in Exodus 10:13...and I only know that because I turn to Strong's for my minimal understanding of Hebrew. I studied Arabic, but only glanced at Hebrew.}

My point was, and no I am not a linguist, that most the time the HS is feminine in Hebrew but not always.
And my point is that your claim is specious: The gender of the noun (in this case ruach which means "breath", or "spirit" or even "wind") does not indicate the sex of Him Whose Breath He actually is. He is male throughout scripture...and His Seed is His Word from which faith comes.
Thus my question.

Why do Christians say male?
I have answered in as many different ways as possible...except the simplest: He is Male...in fact, The Male.
There should be a reason.
Sex is defined...sex is definite. He set that in Truth with a Word. He is, and He will always be He.
 
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2 And he said to them, “Did you receive the Holy Spirit when you believed?” And they said, “No, we have not even heard that there is a Holy Spirit.” 3 And he said, “Into what then were you baptized?” They said, “Into John's baptism.” 4 And Paul said, “John baptized with the baptism of repentance, telling the people to believe in the one who was to come after him, that is, Jesus.” 5 On hearing this, they were baptized in[b] the name of the Lord Jesus. 6 And when Paul had laid his hands on them, the Holy Spirit came on them, and they began speaking in tongues and prophesying.
They were not saved as of yet!
 
They were not saved as of yet!
That is a specious claim...it only works for those who do not understand the baptism of Jesus.

When Luke calls someone a disciple, he recognizes the conversion. These were disciples. This was no exception. These came to Jesus under Apollos' teaching, who knew everything perfectly concerning Jesus, but only kinew the baptism of John. Apollos brought them to Christ, and did not himself know of the promise of Pentecost until he got taken aside by Priscilla and Aquilla.

Luke makes this very clear, but the chapter break obfuscates the lesson. Paul's first question to the disciples shows an understanding of the process that the church has often denied, because, like Apollos, we have not been taught that there is anything more than an intangible, feeble, impotent and mostly-discouraged-from-working-miracles "holy spirit" who exists in theory and dogma only, but whose presence cannot be proven in any substantial way besides using the "name it and claim it" methodology of WoF.
 
So when the Hebrew say's fe-male, it does not really mean that?

Not sure what your point is.

My point was, and no I am not a linguist, that most the time the HS is feminine in Hebrew but not always.

Thus my question.

Why do Christians say male?

There should be a reason.
the reason is Rome corrupted many concepts. Then, added its own horrible queen of heaven mimicry.
 
That is a specious claim...it only works for those who do not understand the baptism of Jesus.

When Luke calls someone a disciple, he recognizes the conversion. These were disciples. This was no exception. These came to Jesus under Apollos' teaching, who knew everything perfectly concerning Jesus, but only kinew the baptism of John. Apollos brought them to Christ, and did not himself know of the promise of Pentecost until he got taken aside by Priscilla and Aquilla.

Luke makes this very clear, but the chapter break obfuscates the lesson. Paul's first question to the disciples shows an understanding of the process that the church has often denied, because, like Apollos, we have not been taught that there is anything more than an intangible, feeble, impotent and mostly-discouraged-from-working-miracles "holy spirit" who exists in theory and dogma only, but whose presence cannot be proven in any substantial way besides using the "name it and claim it" methodology of WoF.
They had not even heard who jesus was, so how could been saved yet?
 
They had not even heard who jesus was, so how could been saved yet?
Luke would not have called them "disciples" if they had not heard of Jesus. He only refers to disciples of Jesus as disciples. You need to know the consistent language that Luke uses. Are you reading the right passage? Acts 18:24,

I'm editing the passage in so you don't have to look it up: 24Meanwhile a Jew named Apollos, a native of Alexandria, came to Ephesus. He was an eloquent man, well versed in the Scriptures. 25He had been instructed in the way of the Lord and was fervent in spirit. He spoke and taught accurately about Jesus, though he knew only the baptism of John. 26And he began to speak boldly in the synagogue. When Priscilla and Aquila heard him, they took him in and explained to him the way of God more accurately.

Apollos knew and taught accurately concerning Jesus and he makes disciples, and is insufficient in his own understanding of the gospel, because he was unacquainted with the baptism of the Holy Spirit, which Luke and John the Baptist call "The baptism of Jesus." Priscilla and Aquilla enlighten him and he wants to go off to Achaia...the province where Corinth is the capital, to see the Charismatic church there. He goes, and creates the stir Paul addresses in his first epistle top the Corinthians. In the meantime, the disciples who found Jesus through an insufficient gospel, receive the fullness of that gospel when Paul arrives. How could they hear of the Holy Spirit unless someone preach it? Faith comes by hearing, and here, in Acts 19:1-5, Paul fills in the rest, that part of which they had not heard because Apollos was unaware.

Luke is the writer. He's very specific dealing with Apollos...and the difference between the two baptisms of which John the Baptizer spoke.
 
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His Spirit is feminine.
That's a fallacious claim. God is He...never she. Whoever makes the claim on the basis of grammar does not understand grammar. Whoever makes the claim as a matter of theology has an agenda.

Did you read any of the discussion with Slyzr? Did you reject the argument? Or did you just decide to ignore it, because it's comforting to think that God can be part girl? Do you know how close to blasphemy the claim is, and the dangers we face in this new secular "woke" religion that is being enforced globally, everywhere, but rejected as criminal in all totalitarian states?

There will be a wedding...put all doubts aside. There is a Male and a Female. The Bride is no more male than the Groom can be female.
 
That's a fallacious claim. God is He...never she. Whoever makes the claim on the basis of grammar does not understand grammar. Whoever makes the claim as a matter of theology has an agenda.

Did you read any of the discussion with Slyzr? Did you reject the argument? Or did you just decide to ignore it, because it's comforting to think that God can be part girl? Do you know how close to blasphemy the claim is, and the dangers we face in this new secular "woke" religion that is being enforced globally, everywhere, but rejected as criminal in all totalitarian states?

There will be a wedding...put all doubts aside. There is a Male and a Female. The Bride is no more male than the Groom can be female.

so no more belching?

Belching is out; especially at a wedding.

excuse me your grace ......

and I suspect farting is gone also?

Your grace?
 
Ignorance is an easily treatable symptom for the willing...it never has to be the prognosis. Personal ignorance is a delightful discovery for those who love to learn. Those who'd rather hear themselves speak than learn have a prognosis brilliantly described throughout proverbs.
 
I know this is really hard for you. I can only try to help you:No...The word "female" has meaning, and designates sex. "God created us in His image. In the image of God created He us...Male and female He created us." . Male and female prove two sexes...and it's wise to ask, "Where is the female in the image of God?" It is not and cannot be in His spirit. He is not both male and female. He is Who He is. That's His name. But there is a Bride...precious to Him.

The gender of a noun does not designate the sex of the object. La table in French is feminine. A table is not a female.

That's pretty clear. You asked why we call the Spirit of God "He". You claimed that the Holy Spirit is a female, because "spirit" in Hebrew is feminine. (Interestingly, ruach is masculine in Exodus 10:13...and I only know that because I turn to Strong's for my minimal understanding of Hebrew. I studied Arabic, but only glanced at Hebrew.}

And my point is that your claim is specious: The gender of the noun (in this case ruach which means "breath", or "spirit" or even "wind") does not indicate the sex of Him Whose Breath He actually is. He is male throughout scripture...and His Seed is His Word from which faith comes.
I have answered in as many different ways as possible...except the simplest: He is Male...in fact, The Male.
Sex is defined...sex is definite. He set that in Truth with a Word. He is, and He will always be He.

Umm Pete .....

Their sex is no one can be.

Thanks for playing .....


The gender of a noun does not designate the sex of the object. La table in French is feminine. A table is not a female.

That's pretty clear. You asked why we call the Spirit of God "He". You claimed that the Holy Spirit is a female, because "spirit" in Hebrew is feminine. (Interestingly, ruach is masculine in Exodus 10:13...and I only know that because I turn to Strong's for my minimal understanding of Hebrew. I studied Arabic, but only glanced at Hebrew.}

And my point is that your claim is specious: The gender of the noun (in this case ruach which means "breath", or "spirit" or even "wind") does not indicate the sex of Him Whose Breath He actually is. He is male throughout scripture...and His Seed is His Word from which faith comes.
I have answered in as many different ways as possible...except the simplest: He is Male...in fact, The Male.
Sex is defined...sex is definite. He set that in Truth with a Word. He is, and He will always be He.

Ok welcome to no.

It's in the greek.

Is that a pensis we don't see .....


Probabaly not.

Ha ha funny right ..... ?
 
Yes one can... When we get saved, we don't know much about a Holy Spirit, if anything.... As a born again person, we are all given a measure of the Holy Spirit... So, once again, yes, we may have the Holy Spirit and not know it...
I agree, but I believe the effect will be evident. That is, believing the gospel, desiring more of Christ.

But technically, what we need to know and realize is Jesus.
 
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