God walks into His Temple.

Greetings again Towerwatchman,

Matthew 1:20-21 and Luke 1:34-35 simply and clearly teach that Jesus was and is a human, the Son of God, born with God the Father as his father and Mary his mother. The "Trinitarian" incarnation is a completely different teaching, in opposition to what these passages teach.\
That would work if you keep those verses in isolation, but against the backdrop of scripture, your theory fails. Take Heb 1:2, Jesus is 'upholding all things by the word of His power when He purged sin." According to you, Jesus was just a mere man when He purged our sins. How do you reconcile identifying Jesus as a mere man against the fact that Jesus was sustaining the universe, at that moment, by the power of the word?
The Word is parallel in thought with the wise woman Wisdom in Proverbs 8.
You did not address my post. 'parallel in thought' or personification of God's plan' is abstract.
My apologies that the question was incomplete. Do you believe that Jesus existed as a cognitive, free-willed, conscious, independent, and separate from God or the Father before the incarnation?

But that is the meaning of the word begotten, a father has a child. There is no support for eternally begotten in the expression, despite the Trinitarian desperate attempts to ignore the fact that Jesus is the Son of God, not God the Son.
I am discussing 'only begotten' vs 'begot'

Repost.
only-begotten translates from.

Μονογενής “only begotten” denotes the special relationship between parent and offspring {human} and is also used to note the special relationship between The Father and The Son. Has nothing to do with procreating. Note the following where it is used to denote relationship and not “begot” = “giving birth to”.

Lk 7:12 And when He came near the gate of the city, behold, a dead man was being carried out, the only son of his mother; and she was a widow. And a large crowd from the city was with her.
Luke 7:12 ὡς δὲ ἤγγισεν τῇ πύλῃ τῆς πόλεως, καὶ ἰδοὺ ἐξεκομίζετο τεθνηκὼς μονογενὴς υἱὸς τῇ μητρὶ αὐτοῦ καὶ αὐτὴ ἦν χήρα, καὶ ὄχλος τῆς πόλεως ἱκανὸς ἦν σὺν αὐτῇ.
μονογενὴς υἱὸς τῇ μητρὶ = Only begotten son to the mother of him.


Lk 8:42 for he had an only daughter about twelve years of age, and she was dying...
Lk 8:42 ὅτι θυγάτηρ μονογενὴς ἦν αὐτῷ ὡς ἐτῶν δώδεκα καὶ αὐτὴ ἀπέθνῃσκεν. Ἐν δὲ τῷ ὑπάγειν αὐτὸν οἱ ὄχλοι συνέπνιγον αὐτόν
ὅτι θυγάτηρ μονογενὴς ἦν αὐτῷ = Because daughter only born was to him


Lk 9:38 Suddenly a man from the multitude cried out, saying, “Teacher, I implore You, look on my son, for he is my only child.
Luke 9:38 καὶ ἰδοὺ ἀνὴρ ἀπὸ τοῦ ὄχλου ἐβόησεν λέγων· διδάσκαλε, δέομαί σου ἐπιβλέψαι ἐπὶ τὸν υἱόν μου, ὅτι μονογενής μοί ἐστιν,
ὅτι μονογενής μοί ἐστιν, =
Because only born to me he is.

And here is the kicker.
Heb 11:17 By faith Abraham, when he was tested, offered up Isaac, and he who had received the promises offered up his only begotten son,
Most know that Abraham fathered Ismael and Isaac, but he also fathered six other sons evident by the following verses.
Ge 25:1-2Abraham again took a wife, and her name was Keturah. 2 And she bore him Zimran, Jokshan, Medan, Midian, Ishbak, and Shuah.
1 Ch 1:32 Now the sons born to Keturah, Abraham’s concubine, were Zimran, Jokshan, Medan, Midian, Ishbak, and Shuah…

We conclude from scripture that Abraham had eight sons, therefore one has to ask why did the author of Hebrews identify Isaac as Abraham's only begotten son if the meaning of begotten is to conceive or father children? John’s word marks the relation to the Father as unique, stating the fact in itself. Μονογενής ‘only begotten’ distinguishes between Christ as the only Son, and the many children (τέκνα) of God; and further, in that the only Son did not ‘become’ (γενέσθαι) such by receiving power, by adoption, or by moral generation, but ‘was’ (ἦν) such in the beginning with God.

The confusion lies in the translation, where the translated words are so similar that one naturally assumes that it is the same word in different forms.

γεννάω [gennao] translates as “begat” 49 times, “be born” 39 times, “bear” twice, “gender” twice, “bring forth” once, “be delivered” once, and translated miscellaneously three times. 1 of men who fathered children. 1a to be born. 1b to be begotten. 1b1 of women giving birth to children. {Strong, James: The Exhaustive Concordance of the Bible}

“Gennao” is translated as “begot” in the opening of Matthew where the lineage of Jesus through Joseph is recorded.

There is strong support for "I will be/become" and "He will be/become", refer my thread "The Yahweh Name". I also have a copy of a 141 post, 18 year old Carm thread where this subject was thoroughly discussed and two of the Trinitarians endorsed the main proposition at the end. One of these, is still active on this forum and he has significant Hebrew skills and he recently still endorsed "I will be" when I asked him even though at the beginning of that thread he opposed the future tense.
The fallacy of Anonymous Authority.

“When unspecified sources use as evidence for the claim. This is commonly indicated by the phrases such as “they said, that it has been said, I heard that studies show’ or generalized groups such as ‘scientists say'. When we fail to specify a source of the authority we cannot verify the source, thus the credibility of the argument. Appeals to anonymous sources are more often than not either a way to fabricate, exaggerate, or misrepresent facts in order to deceive others into accepting a claim.” [Logically Fallacious]

e'heyeh aser' e'heyeh translates either "I am who I am", "I am what I am", or "I will be what I will be." 'Become' implies change and contradicts immutability which is an attribute of God.

Genesis 1:26-27 and Psalm 8:5. Genesis 2:7 shows that there was more than simply speaking man into existence.
Post the verses and highlight where in the verse it states specifically that the angels were involved in creation. Mentioned by name 'angels'.
Yes, both contradictory.
care to explain
But Isaac was the only seed of promise, and conceived/born because of God's power, similar to Jesus. When God made promise to Abraham and his seed in Genesis 13:14-15 that applies in type to Isaac only, and ultimately to Christ, not all of Abraham's descendants who were sent eastwards.
Care to post your support using scripture? Otherwise, it's your opinion.
he margin of the KJV states that the Greek of "conceived" is begotten. God the Father is the father of Jesus by his creative power, the Holy Spirit. Jesus is the firstborn of the New Creation, created the Son of God by birth, character and resurrection.
Post your supporting verses, please.
 
Nope, but the way of Yahweh is Jesus his human Son who Yahweh sent to fulfil the law and then to die for our sins in order that we might be returned in repentance and faith unto Yahweh our creator and God.

Therefore, instead of Yahweh appearing in the cloud above the temple, he appeared right in the temple through the flesh of his human Son Jesus Christ who Paul called the image of the invisible God because God was dwelling within Christ and reconciling the world unto himself through Jesus.

However, this doesn't make Jesus Yahweh God like you trins attempt to do with these passages, for you read what you want to into them instead of seeking and asking God to reveal His Truth unto you concerning them.

Thus what you are really worshiping and serving, is the flesh with its human wisdom and intellect and therefore you are not really worshiping God in Spirit and Truth at all like you claim to be.

This reminds me of Pompeo when he came out openly on TV praising the worldly smarts of Vladimir Putin when the Bible clearly tells us that the wisdom of this world is foolishness with God and he also claims to be a Christian

You can be totally assured of this fact however, for no true Christian would ever praise a worldly human being for their worldly smarts unto other human beings when God calls this kind of smarts foolishness.
In Matthew Jesus was asked if He was the Son of God. His answer is very unique, because not only does He confirm it but also claims the cloud. Look anywhere in the Bible and you will see that when YHWH appears He appears in a cloud. Jesus confirmed deity by claiming to be the Son of God and coming on a cloud.

Ex 14:24 Now it came to pass, in the morning watch, that the Lord looked down upon the army of the Egyptians through the pillar of fire and cloud, and He troubled the army of the Egyptians.

Ex 16:10 Now it came to pass, as Aaron spoke to the whole congregation of the children of Israel, that they looked toward the wilderness, and behold, the glory of the Lord appeared in the cloud.

Ex 19:16 Then it came to pass on the third day, in the morning, that there were thunderings and lightnings, and a thick cloud on the mountain; and the sound of the trumpet was very loud, so that all the people who were in the camp trembled.

Ex 40:34 Then the cloud covered the tabernacle of meeting, and the glory of the Lord filled the tabernacle. 35 And Moses was not able to enter the tabernacle of meeting, because the cloud rested above it, and the glory of the Lord filled the tabernacle.

1Kings 8:10 And it came to pass, when the priests came out of the holy place, that the cloud filled the house of the Lord, 11 so that the priests could not continue ministering because of the cloud; for the glory of the Lord filled the house of the Lord. 12 Then Solomon spoke: “The Lord said He would dwell in the dark cloud.

Mt 17:5 While he was still speaking, behold, a bright cloud overshadowed them; and suddenly a voice came out of the cloud, saying, “This is My beloved Son, in whom I am well pleased. Hear Him!”

Mt 24:30 Then the sign of the Son of Man will appear in heaven, and then all the tribes of the earth will mourn, and they will see the Son of Man coming on the clouds of heaven with power and great glory.

Acts 1:9 Now when He had spoken these things, while they watched, He was taken up, and a cloud received Him out of their sight.

Rev 1:7 Behold, He is coming with clouds, and every eye will see Him, even they who pierced Him. And all the tribes of the earth will mourn because of Him. Even so, Amen.
 
In Matthew Jesus was asked if He was the Son of God. His answer is very unique, because not only does He confirm it but also claims the cloud. Look anywhere in the Bible and you will see that when YHWH appears He appears in a cloud. Jesus confirmed deity by claiming to be the Son of God and coming on a cloud.

Ex 14:24 Now it came to pass, in the morning watch, that the Lord looked down upon the army of the Egyptians through the pillar of fire and cloud, and He troubled the army of the Egyptians.

Ex 16:10 Now it came to pass, as Aaron spoke to the whole congregation of the children of Israel, that they looked toward the wilderness, and behold, the glory of the Lord appeared in the cloud.

Ex 19:16 Then it came to pass on the third day, in the morning, that there were thunderings and lightnings, and a thick cloud on the mountain; and the sound of the trumpet was very loud, so that all the people who were in the camp trembled.

Ex 40:34 Then the cloud covered the tabernacle of meeting, and the glory of the Lord filled the tabernacle. 35 And Moses was not able to enter the tabernacle of meeting, because the cloud rested above it, and the glory of the Lord filled the tabernacle.

1Kings 8:10 And it came to pass, when the priests came out of the holy place, that the cloud filled the house of the Lord, 11 so that the priests could not continue ministering because of the cloud; for the glory of the Lord filled the house of the Lord. 12 Then Solomon spoke: “The Lord said He would dwell in the dark cloud.

Mt 17:5 While he was still speaking, behold, a bright cloud overshadowed them; and suddenly a voice came out of the cloud, saying, “This is My beloved Son, in whom I am well pleased. Hear Him!”

Mt 24:30 Then the sign of the Son of Man will appear in heaven, and then all the tribes of the earth will mourn, and they will see the Son of Man coming on the clouds of heaven with power and great glory.

Acts 1:9 Now when He had spoken these things, while they watched, He was taken up, and a cloud received Him out of their sight.

Rev 1:7 Behold, He is coming with clouds, and every eye will see Him, even they who pierced Him. And all the tribes of the earth will mourn because of Him. Even so, Amen.
That figures, for when you trins are caught with proof that you are wrong about the scriptures being discussed, you will turn to some other argument that you somehow think levels out the field for your false doctrine when it doesn't at all and can't either and such is the case with the bunk in the above.


This proves absolutely nothing dude, for to begin with, God is in Christ and now inseparably also and therefore when Jesus returns, God is coming also within him and the Bible is clear on this and this is why Jesus is the image and glory of the invisible God also, read John 14:8-10, for Jesus himself taught his disciples this very clearly.


Therefore at the second coming, God will appear in Christ who will appear in the clouds, see how easily your idea in the above is revealed as the nonsense that it truly is?

Titus 2:13 is saying exactly that also, for Jesus is the image and glory of the invisible God in the same way as Paul tells us the wife is the image and glory of her husband with this big difference, for unlike the husband and wife, God is actually in Christ dwelling within him in all of his fulness and there is no way that the husband can be literally dwelling within his wife.
 
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That would work if you keep those verses in isolation, but against the backdrop of scripture, your theory fails. Take Heb 1:2, Jesus is 'upholding all things by the word of His power when He purged sin." According to you, Jesus was just a mere man when He purged our sins. How do you reconcile identifying Jesus as a mere man against the fact that Jesus was sustaining the universe, at that moment, by the power of the word?

That's not what it says.

Moreover, read it again:

3 And he is the radiance of His glory
and the express image of His being,
upholding all things by the word of His power.
 
Greetings again Towerwatchman,
Take Heb 1:2, Jesus is 'upholding all things by the word of His power when He purged sin." According to you, Jesus was just a mere man when He purged our sins. How do you reconcile identifying Jesus as a mere man against the fact that Jesus was sustaining the universe, at that moment, by the power of the word?
I understand this to say that Jesus is NOW sustaining all things by the word of his power, and the "all things" is an allusion or quotation of Psalm 8:6 which have been "put under his feet".
You did not address my post. 'parallel in thought' or personification of God's plan' is abstract.
The flow of thought in John 1:1,14 is how the character of God came to be revealed in Jesus, the Son of God, "the Word was MADE flesh", not the shrinking of God the Son into the womb of Mary.
My apologies that the question was incomplete. Do you believe that Jesus existed as a cognitive, free-willed, conscious, independent, and separate from God or the Father before the incarnation?
No, see above.
I am discussing 'only begotten' vs 'begot'
I am discussing the fact that Jesus is the only Son of God, conceiver/begotten by means of the Holy Spirit as God being the father and Mary his mother.
We conclude from scripture that Abraham had eight sons, therefore one has to ask why did the author of Hebrews identify Isaac as Abraham's only begotten son if the meaning of begotten is to conceive or father children?
God does not use the word "begotten" in the following, and this shows that Isaac was the only true "spiritual" seed, while all his other children were born after the flesh. His greatest love was towards Isaac, the child from Sarah, and the seed of promise.
Genesis 22:1-2 (KJV) 1 And it came to pass after these things, that God did tempt Abraham, and said unto him, Abraham: and he said, Behold, here I am. 2 And he said, Take now thy son, thine only son Isaac, whom thou lovest, and get thee into the land of Moriah; and offer him there for a burnt offering upon one of the mountains which I will tell thee of.
e'heyeh aser' e'heyeh translates either "I am who I am", "I am what I am", or "I will be what I will be." 'Become' implies change and contradicts immutability which is an attribute of God.
I accept "I will be who/what I will be", refer also Tyndale, RV and RSV margins, AB Davidson, Rotherham, Alec Motyer and other language scholars. God was going to be with Moses to deliver Israel out of Egypt and as such He would BECOME their salvation Exodus 3:12, 14, 6:1-8, 15:1-3. God is the father of Jesus, and Jesus reveals God his father. What Jesus was and is the product of God, what God has become as an addition to what He was before the birth and development of Jesus, all from God. God will eventually be "all in all" 1 Corinthians 15:28.
Post the verses and highlight where in the verse it states specifically that the angels were involved in creation. Mentioned by name 'angels'.
Psalm 8:5 states that Yahweh made man "a little lower than the Angels (Hebrew Elohim)" and this is a summary of Genesis 1:26-27, the "us" and "our". Making man in their image and likeness does not make man equal to God and the Angels, but a little lower than the Angels.
care to explain
You cannot get (future) something that you already have from eternity.
Care to post your support using scripture? Otherwise, it's your opinion.
See above and Genesis 13:14-15, Galatians 3:16, 26-29. I will find the reference for the other children being sent to the East later.
Post your supporting verses, please.
Matthew 1:20-21, Luke 1:34-35, John 1:14, Romans 1:1-4.

Kind regards
Trevor
 
That figures, for when you trins are caught with proof that you are wrong about the scriptures being discussed, you will turn to some other argument that you somehow think levels out the field for your false doctrine when it doesn't at all and can't either and such is the case with the bunk in the above.


This proves absolutely nothing dude, for to begin with, God is in Christ and now inseparably also and therefore when Jesus returns, God is coming also within him and the Bible is clear on this and this is why Jesus is the image and glory of the invisible God also, read John 14:8-10, for Jesus himself taught his disciples this very clearly.


Therefore at the second coming, God will appear in Christ who will appear in the clouds, see how easily your idea in the above is revealed as the nonsense that it truly is?

Titus 2:13 is saying exactly that also, for Jesus is the image and glory of the invisible God in the same way as Paul tells us the wife is the image and glory of her husband with this big difference, for unlike the husband and wife, God is actually in Christ dwelling within him in all of his fulness and there is no way that the husband can be literally dwelling within his wife.
Only ONE Person appearing, our God AND Savior, Jesus Christ in whom ALL the fullness of The GODHEAD dwells BODILY.
 
That figures, for when you trins are caught with proof that you are wrong about the scriptures being discussed, you will turn to some other argument
Really?? I addressed your post. "Therefore, instead of Yahweh appearing in the cloud above the temple."
Same MO falsely accusing me of the very thing you practice.
that you somehow think levels out the field for your false doctrine when it doesn't at all and can't either and such is the case with the bunk in the above.
So I will repost what you failed to answer.

In Matthew Jesus was asked if He was the Son of God. His answer is very unique, because not only does He confirm it but also claims the cloud. Look anywhere in the Bible and you will see that when YHWH appears He appears in a cloud. Jesus confirmed deity by claiming to be the Son of God and coming on a cloud.

Ex 14:24 Now it came to pass, in the morning watch, that the Lord looked down upon the army of the Egyptians through the pillar of fire and cloud, and He troubled the army of the Egyptians.

Ex 16:10 Now it came to pass, as Aaron spoke to the whole congregation of the children of Israel, that they looked toward the wilderness, and behold, the glory of the Lord appeared in the cloud.

Ex 19:16 Then it came to pass on the third day, in the morning, that there were thunderings and lightnings, and a thick cloud on the mountain; and the sound of the trumpet was very loud, so that all the people who were in the camp trembled.

Ex 40:34 Then the cloud covered the tabernacle of meeting, and the glory of the Lord filled the tabernacle. 35 And Moses was not able to enter the tabernacle of meeting, because the cloud rested above it, and the glory of the Lord filled the tabernacle.

1Kings 8:10 And it came to pass, when the priests came out of the holy place, that the cloud filled the house of the Lord, 11 so that the priests could not continue ministering because of the cloud; for the glory of the Lord filled the house of the Lord. 12 Then Solomon spoke: “The Lord said He would dwell in the dark cloud.

Mt 17:5 While he was still speaking, behold, a bright cloud overshadowed them; and suddenly a voice came out of the cloud, saying, “This is My beloved Son, in whom I am well pleased. Hear Him!”

Mt 24:30 Then the sign of the Son of Man will appear in heaven, and then all the tribes of the earth will mourn, and they will see the Son of Man coming on the clouds of heaven with power and great glory.

Acts 1:9 Now when He had spoken these things, while they watched, He was taken up, and a cloud received Him out of their sight.
This proves absolutely nothing dude, for to begin with, God is in Christ and now inseparably also and therefore when Jesus returns, God is coming also within him and the Bible is clear on this and this is why Jesus is the image and glory of the invisible God also, read John 14:8-10, for Jesus himself taught his disciples this very clearly.
John 14:10Do you not believe that I am in the Father, and the Father in Me? The words that I speak to you I do not speak on My own authority; but the Father who dwells in Me does the works. 11 Believe Me that I am in the Father and the Father in Me, or else believe Me for the sake of the works themselves.

Keeping a verse or verses in isolation to support your ideas and ignore the backdrop of chapter is wrong. After reading John 14 we can see that Jesus is stating in vs 10 that He is one with the Father, in essence, in speaking, and in acting.

You opened another can of worms, that you failed to address. Applying your logic to the passage, we can easily conclude that your Jesus has a psychological problem. Which is it? The Father in Jesus, Jesus is in the Father, or both?
.

Therefore at the second coming, God will appear in Christ who will appear in the clouds, see how easily your idea in the above is revealed as the nonsense that it truly is?
Titus 2:13 is saying exactly that also, for Jesus is the image and glory of the invisible God in the same way as Paul tells us the wife is the image and glory of her husband with this big difference, for unlike the husband and wife, God is actually in Christ dwelling within him in all of his fulness and there is no way that the husband can be literally dwelling within his wife.
Since you are arguing grammar. We are looking for the “glorious appearance” not the “appearance of glory” and the grammatical basis for this view is the widely acknowledged fact that a descriptive noun in the genitive [glory] following another noun[appearance] may exhibit an attributive use of the genitive, in which the noun functions as a description of the preceding(or “head”) noun. In this view, glory is what characterizes the appearance. Also the only one that appears is Jesus never the Father; therefore 2:13 speaks only of Jesus.
 
That's not what it says.

Moreover, read it again:

3 And he is the radiance of His glory
and the express image of His being,
upholding all things by the word of His power.
Do you have a point to make?

But let me help you out.

Heb 1:3 who [Jesus] being the brightness of His glory and the express image of His person…

5287 ὑπόστασις [hupostasis] Five occurrences; AV translates as “confidence” twice, “confident” once, “person” once, and “substance” once. 1 a setting or placing under. 1a thing put under, substructure, foundation. 2 that which has foundation, is firm. 2a that which has actual existence. 2a1 a substance, real being. 2b the substantial quality, nature, of a person or thing. 2c the steadfastness of mind, firmness, courage, resolution. 2c1 confidence, firm trust, assurance. [Strong, James: The Exhaustive Concordance of the Bible]

The express image of his person (χαρακτήρ=ὁ= ὑπόστασις = αὐτός). Rend. the very image (or impress) of his substance. The primary sense of ὑπόστασις substance is something which stands underneath; foundation, ground of hope or confidence, and so, assurance itself. In a philosophical sense, substantial nature; the real nature of anything which underlies and supports its outward form and properties. Therefore equal to God Himself.
 
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Heb 1:3 who [Jesus] being the brightness of His glory and the express image of His person…

5287 ὑπόστασις [hupostasis] Five occurrences; AV translates as “confidence” twice, “confident” once, “person” once, and “substance” once. 1 a setting or placing under. 1a thing put under, substructure, foundation. 2 that which has foundation, is firm. 2a that which has actual existence. 2a1 a substance, real being. 2b the substantial quality, nature, of a person or thing. 2c the steadfastness of mind, firmness, courage, resolution. 2c1 confidence, firm trust, assurance. [Strong, James: The Exhaustive Concordance of the Bible]

The express image of his person (χαρακτήρ=ὁ= ὑπόστασις = αὐτός). Rend. the very image (or impress) of his substance. The primary sense of ὑπόστασις substance is something which stands underneath; foundation, ground of hope or confidence, and so, assurance itself. In a philosophical sense, substantial nature; the real nature of anything which underlies and supports its outward form and properties. Therefore equal to God Himself.
Some people might view this as saying that the person or persona is equal to God which isn't what you've presented at all.

What you've posted is accurate, but too many people don't understand that God is not equivalent to Himself, or the persona that is presented to the world. God is the origin of his own person or persona.

When we say "himself" we are necessarily referring to his self, and what is his is not who he is. Grammatically speaking, it's the difference between the Verb to Be and the Genitive of Possession. They cannot be equivalent.

However, there may be one exception if we look at being as an attribute rather than who one is. If being or existence is what belongs to God rather than who God is, then they are somewhat equivalent. The verb to be then becomes equivalent to the genitive of possession. It's a grammatical problem, but not a logical or mathematical problem.

If we see that God is the origin of being rather than being itself, there is no problem anymore. Paul affirms this to be the case in 1 Corinthians 8:6
 
I understand this to say that Jesus is NOW sustaining all things by the word of his power, and the "all things" is an allusion or quotation of Psalm 8:6 which have been "put under his feet".
Heb 1:3 who being the brightness of His glory and the express image of His person, and upholding all things by the word of His power, when He had [c]by Himself [d]purged [e]our sins, sat down at the right hand of the Majesty on high,

Yes, Jesus is sustaining all things now, but that is not what the author of Hebrews wrote. Notice what he writes and what tense he uses. He wrote that Jesus was upholding all things [when He...purged our sins]. Past tense. According to the author Jesus was upholding all things when He purged our sins. When did Jesus purge our sins? At His death.
You have a problem. If Jesus was a mere man who died on a cross, how can a mere man [who just died] sustain the universe?
The flow of thought in John 1:1,14 is how the character of God came to be revealed in Jesus, the Son of God, "the Word was MADE flesh",
Are you stating that it was the character of God that was made flesh vs the Logos?
John 1:1-18 is John's thesis. The gospel of John is intended to be read based on this thesis.
Hint. 'dwelt amongst us".
Dwelt (ἐσκήνωσεν). [skenoo /skay·no·o/] Lit., tabernacled, fixed, or had His tabernacle: from σκηνή, a tent or tabernacle. Verb form originating from the root word σκηνή [skene /skay·nay/] translates as “tabernacle” 1 tent, tabernacle, (made of green boughs, or skins or other materials). 2 of that well known movable temple of God after the pattern of which the temple at Jerusalem was built. Skene was used in the LXX for the tabernacle where God met with Israel before the temple was built.

We lose it in the translation. John uses tabernacled vs dwelt. Any Hellenistic Jew would have picked up on this. [Ex 25:8]. Moses spoke to God in the tabernacle of skins and now man speaks to the same God clothed in flesh.

not the shrinking of God the Son into the womb of Mary.
Is God not omnipresent?
No, see above.
If Jesus did not exist before the incarnation we should find no mention of Him prior to the incarnation.
Phil 2:5 Let this mind be in you which was also in Christ Jesus, 6 who, being in the form of God, did not consider it robbery to be equal with God,
Note, Paul states in Phil 2 that Jesus did exist before the incarnation. Place close attention to “consider” in vs 6. Consider = think carefully about (something), typically before making a decision. Jesus would have to exist to be able to “consider’ anything. What was Jesus thinking carefully about? To make a decision you need to have more than one option to decide on, therefore He decided between considering it something to be grasped, and not to be grasped. Therefore to be able to consider between two options one would have to have the cognitive ability to freely choose, otherwise known as free will. And if free will then a cognitive thinking entity separate from the One He is considering equality with.
I am discussing the fact that Jesus is the only Son of God, conceiver/begotten by means of the Holy Spirit as God being the father and Mary his mother...Matthew 1:20-21, Luke 1:34-35, John 1:14, Romans 1:1-4.
Let's analyze
Mt 1:20 'conceived'
Luke 1:34 'born'
1080 γεννάω [gennao /ghen·nah·o/] v. From a variation of 1085; TDNT 1:665; TDNTA 114; GK 1164; 97 occurrences; AV translates as “begat” 49 times, “be born” 39 times, “bear” twice, “gender” twice, “bring forth” once, “be delivered” once, and translated miscellaneously three times. 1 of men who fathered children. 1A to be born. 1B to be begotten. 1B1 of women giving birth to children. 2 metaph. 2A to engender, cause to arise, excite. 2B in a Jewish sense, of one who brings others over to his way of life, to convert someone. 2C of God making Christ his son. 2D of God making men his sons through faith in Christ’s work.
Strong, J. (1995). In Enhanced Strong’s Lexicon. Woodside Bible Fellowship.

Mt 1:20 and Lu 1:34 are describing the conception of Jesus and nothing else. It is bad logic to conclude that X does not exist because X has not been mentioned. One confirms that X does not exist if X's nonexistence is confirmed. Therefore we can conclude that Jesus was conceived by the HS but we cannot deny the deity of Jesus based on these verses.

John 1:14 'only-begotten.
3439 μονογενής [monogenes /mon·og·en·ace/] adj. From 3441 and 1096; TDNT 4:737; TDNTA 606; GK 3666; Nine occurrences; AV translates as “only begotten” six times, “only” twice, and “only child” once. 1 single of its kind, only. 1A used of only sons or daughters (viewed in relation to their parents). 1B used of Christ, denotes the only begotten son of God.
Strong, J. (1995). In Enhanced Strong’s Lexicon. Woodside Bible Fellowship.

"only begotten' is referring to the special relationship between Jesus and the Father. Has nothing to do with conception. But the same applies here. One can conclude that Jesus held a special relationship with the Father, but one cannot conclude that Jesus was not conceived based on the verse.

Romans 1:3 'born'
1096 γίνομαι [ginomai /ghin·om·ahee/] v. A prolongation and middle voice form of a primary verb; TDNT 1:681; TDNTA 117; GK 1181; 678 occurrences; AV translates as “be” 255 times, “come to pass” 82 times, “be made” 69 times, “be done” 63 times, “come” 52 times, “become” 47 times, “God forbid + 3361” 15 times, “arise” 13 times, “have” five times, “be fulfilled” three times, “be married to” three times, “be preferred” three times, not translated 14 times, translated miscellaneously four times, and “vr done” twice. 1 to become, i.e. to come into existence, begin to be, receive being. 2 to become, i.e. to come to pass, happen. 2A of events. 3 to arise, appear in history, come upon the stage. 3A of men appearing in public. 4 to be made, finished. 4A of miracles, to be performed, wrought. 5 to become, be made.
Strong, J. (1995). In Enhanced Strong’s Lexicon. Woodside Bible Fellowship.

But here we have Paul writing about both natures, human and divine. Born translates from the above and is referring to physical birth. But that is half of what Paul is communicating.
"was born of the seed of David according to the flesh" Physical
"and declared to be the Son of God with power according to the Spirit of holiness" Divine
Notice the anthesis. "According to the flesh" vs "according to the spirit". If one applies then the other does also.

Romans 9:5 of whom are the fathers and from whom, according to the flesh, Christ came, who is over all, the eternally blessed God. Amen.
Here Paul also writes explicitly about both natures. 'according to the flesh'= human, and 'God'= divine.
In the original language, it reads 'God blessed forever.' 'Blessed forever' is a doxology added by Jewish writers to express reverence.

God does not use the word "begotten" in the following, and this shows that Isaac was the only true "spiritual" seed, while all his other children were born after the flesh. His greatest love was towards Isaac, the child from Sarah, and the seed of promise.
Genesis 22:1-2 (KJV) 1 And it came to pass after these things, that God did tempt Abraham, and said unto him, Abraham: and he said, Behold, here I am. 2 And he said, Take now thy son, thine only son Isaac, whom thou lovest, and get thee into the land of Moriah; and offer him there for a burnt offering upon one of the mountains which I will tell thee of.
Where in the narrative did the writer pen 'spiritual seed'? But back to the main topic.
Hebrews 11:17 17 By faith Abraham, when he was tested, offered up Isaac, and he who had received the promises offered up his only begotten son,
Only-begotten translates from

3439 μονογενής [monogenes /mon·og·en·ace/] adj. From 3441 and 1096; TDNT 4:737; TDNTA 606; GK 3666; Nine occurrences; AV translates as “only begotten” six times, “only” twice, and “only child” once. 1 single of its kind, only. 1A used of only sons or daughters (viewed in relation to their parents). 1B used of Christ, denotes the only begotten son of God.
Strong, J. (1995). In Enhanced Strong’s Lexicon. Woodside Bible Fellowship.

Here the author is referring to the special relationship between Abraham and Issac.

 
I accept "I will be who/what I will be", refer also Tyndale, RV and RSV margins, AB Davidson, Rotherham, Alec Motyer and other language scholars. God was going to be with Moses to deliver Israel out of Egypt and as such He would BECOME their salvation Exodus 3:12, 14, 6:1-8, 15:1-3. God is the father of Jesus, and Jesus reveals God his father. What Jesus was and is the product of God, what God has become as an addition to what He was before the birth and development of Jesus, all from God. God will eventually be "all in all" 1 Corinthians 15:28.
Why do we have to move from " I will be" to "I will become their salvation" when "I will be their salvation" fits perfectly?
Psalm 8:5 states that Yahweh made man "a little lower than the Angels (Hebrew Elohim)" and this is a summary of Genesis 1:26-27, the "us" and "our". Making man in their image and likeness does not make man equal to God and the Angels, but a little lower than the Angels.
Again, wherein the text does it state explicitly that the angels were involved in the creation of man?
 
Greetings again Towerwatchman,
You have a problem. If Jesus was a mere man who died on a cross, how can a mere man [who just died] sustain the universe?
The "all things" is the all things of Psalm 8:6 which speaks of the fact that God has raised up a descendant of Adam, the Son of Man, who is also the Son of God to be in control of the New Creation including those things of the Edenic Creation. Moses was not able to uphold or bear all things in his day, but Jesus has been able and will bear the "all things".
We lose it in the translation. John uses tabernacled vs dwelt. Any Hellenistic Jew would have picked up on this. [Ex 25:8]. Moses spoke to God in the tabernacle of skins and now man speaks to the same God clothed in flesh.
Yes, Jesus is the means whereby God the Father tabernacled in His Son. For example, all the symbols of the furniture of the Holy Place and the Most Holy Place are fulfilled in Jesus. Jesus reveals God's glory, he was full of grace and truth.
Is God not omnipresent?
Yes. We are told how Jesus became the Son of God by means of the conception/birth.
If Jesus did not exist before the incarnation we should find no mention of Him prior to the incarnation.
Phil 2:5 Let this mind be in you which was also in Christ Jesus, 6 who, being in the form of God, did not consider it robbery to be equal with God,
I understand Philippians 2 to be speaking about the disposition of mind of Jesus in his youth, and before and during his ministry. He was the greatest prince to be born, and instead of using this, he humbled himself and became a servant, even unto the death on the cross. Unlike Adam and Eve he did not grasp at equality with God. Compare Absalom
Mt 1:20 and Lu 1:34 are describing the conception of Jesus and nothing else.
They are describing how Jesus came into existence, and his unique birth to become the Son of God, with God the Father as his father and Mary his mother. Trinitarians try to write another story.
"was born of the seed of David according to the flesh" Physical
"and declared to be the Son of God with power according to the Spirit of holiness" Divine
This describes the fact that he was a descendant of David and thus an heir to the promises to David, but also that God the Father was the originator of the birth through Mary, and the originator of his spotless character and his resurrection. All of these prove that Jesus is the Son of God.
Here the author is referring to the special relationship between Abraham and Issac.
The whole incident of Genesis 22 is about Abraham and his son and this pointed forward to God the Father and His Son, our Lord Jesus Christ. Jesus is the Son of God.
Why do we have to move from " I will be" to "I will become their salvation" when "I will be their salvation" fits perfectly?
"Become" gives more the sense that the outcome is the product of God, an extension of His Being. The earth is to be filled with the glory of God Numbers 14:21, God's glory, not just the glory of God revealed in others. God will be "all in all" 1 Corinthians 15:28. God will be or become all, the ultimate fulfillment of "He will be/become".
Again, wherein the text does it state explicitly that the angels were involved in the creation of man?
Your choice as to whether or not you accept my reference and partial explanation of Genesis 1:26-27 and Psalm 8:5. You can lead a horse to water. You can impose your own Trinitarian views upon Genesis 1:26-27, and these verses do NOT explicitly state what you claim, and I certainly do not want to drink those ideas.

Kind regards
Trevor
 
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Greetings again Towerwatchman,

The "all things" is the all things of Psalm 8:6 which speaks of the fact that God has raised up a descendant of Adam, the Son of Man, who is also the Son of God to be in control of the New Creation including those things of the Edenic Creation. Moses was not able to uphold or bear all things in his day, but Jesus has been able and will bear the "all things".

Yes, Jesus is the means whereby God the Father tabernacled in His Son. For example, all the symbols of the furniture of the Holy Place and the Most Holy Place are fulfilled in Jesus. Jesus reveals God's glory, he was full of grace and truth.

Yes. We are told how Jesus became the Son of God by means of the conception/birth.

I understand Philippians 2 to be speaking about the disposition of mind of Jesus in his youth, and before and during his ministry. He was the greatest prince to be born, and instead of using this, he humbled himself and became a servant, even unto the death on the cross. Unlike Adam and Eve he did not grasp at equality with God. Compare Absalom

They are describing how Jesus came into existence, and his unique birth to become the Son of God, with God the Father as his father and Mary his mother. Trinitarians try to write another story.

This describes the fact that he was a descendant of David and thus an heir to the promises to David, but also that God the Father was the originator of the birth through Mary, and the originator of his spotless character and his resurrection. All of these prove that Jesus is the Son of God.

The whole incident of Genesis 22 is about Abraham and his son and this pointed forward to God the Father and His Son, our Lord Jesus Christ. Jesus is the Son of God.

"Become" gives more the sense that the outcome is the product of God, an extension of His Being. The earth is to be filled with the glory of God Numbers 14:21, God's glory, not just the glory of God revealed in others. God will be "all in all" 1 Corinthians 15:28. God will be or become all, the ultimate fulfillment of "He will be/become".

Your choice as to whether or not you accept my reference and partial explanation of Genesis 1:26-27 and Psalm 8:5. You can lead a horse to water. You can impose your own Trinitarian views upon Genesis 1:26-27, and these verses do NOT explicitly state what you claim, and I certainly do not want to drink those ideas.

Kind regards
Trevor
The Son of God can become a man; NO man can become The Son of God.
The body of Jesus The MAN was conceived by The Holy Spirit, NOT by The Father.
Jesus Christ became A MAN, NOT The Son who is eternal.
 
Really?? I addressed your post. "Therefore, instead of Yahweh appearing in the cloud above the temple."
Same MO falsely accusing me of the very thing you practice.

Yes really and you did nothing of the sort but only in your delusional imagination.
So I will repost what you failed to answer.

In Matthew Jesus was asked if He was the Son of God. His answer is very unique, because not only does He confirm it but also claims the cloud. Look anywhere in the Bible and you will see that when YHWH appears He appears in a cloud. Jesus confirmed deity by claiming to be the Son of God and coming on a cloud.

LOL, the Jews knew what it really meant to be called "God's Son" from David's words in Palms 2 where God began this in His decree that David was his Son, for David said "I will declare the decree, Yahweh has said unto me, You are my Son this day have I begotten you".

Then after David this position with God went to Solomon David's anointed son and right on down through the anointed by God from David's descendants to the one that they were only the types of and which is Jesus Christ.

Therefore your idea that Jesus was calling himself Yahweh by admitting to them that he was the Son of God is nothing but your false indoctrination and imagination about it.

For no such thing was even being hinted on from Jesus' answer to them and that includes your wacky idea that him saying that he would be appearing in the clouds was the same as telling them he was Yahweh himself.
Ex 14:24 Now it came to pass, in the morning watch, that the Lord looked down upon the army of the Egyptians through the pillar of fire and cloud, and He troubled the army of the Egyptians.

Ex 16:10 Now it came to pass, as Aaron spoke to the whole congregation of the children of Israel, that they looked toward the wilderness, and behold, the glory of the Lord appeared in the cloud.

Ex 19:16 Then it came to pass on the third day, in the morning, that there were thunderings and lightnings, and a thick cloud on the mountain; and the sound of the trumpet was very loud, so that all the people who were in the camp trembled.

Ex 40:34 Then the cloud covered the tabernacle of meeting, and the glory of the Lord filled the tabernacle. 35 And Moses was not able to enter the tabernacle of meeting, because the cloud rested above it, and the glory of the Lord filled the tabernacle.

1Kings 8:10 And it came to pass, when the priests came out of the holy place, that the cloud filled the house of the Lord, 11 so that the priests could not continue ministering because of the cloud; for the glory of the Lord filled the house of the Lord. 12 Then Solomon spoke: “The Lord said He would dwell in the dark cloud.

Mt 17:5 While he was still speaking, behold, a bright cloud overshadowed them; and suddenly a voice came out of the cloud, saying, “This is My beloved Son, in whom I am well pleased. Hear Him!”

Mt 24:30 Then the sign of the Son of Man will appear in heaven, and then all the tribes of the earth will mourn, and they will see the Son of Man coming on the clouds of heaven with power and great glory.

Acts 1:9 Now when He had spoken these things, while they watched, He was taken up, and a cloud received Him out of their sight.

Already covered how foolish this assumption really is in my second response to this post.

HIs being received into heaven in a cloud and returning in clouds has nothing whatsoever to do with him being revealed to be Yahweh but rather the Son of man and Son of David and Son of God which we see in Daniel 7:13-14 below.


Daniel 7:13 “In my vision at night I looked, and there before me was one like a son of man,[a] coming with the clouds of heaven. He approached the Ancient of Days and was led into his presence. 14 He was given authority, glory and sovereign power; all nations and peoples of every language worshiped him. His dominion is an everlasting dominion that will not pass away, and his kingdom is one that will never be destroyed.

For he was confessing that he was the one who would receive the Kingdom from the real Ancient of Days Yahweh and this is what the Jews truly understood to be what Jesus was telling them when he said he would return and appear in the clouds with great power and glory unto them and not that he himself was the Ancient of Days that he would receive the kingdom from dude.

They didn't want Jesus to be the fulfillment of that prophecy of Daniel 7 because they hated his guts for exposing their sin and hypocrisy before all of the people of Israel.

They were also envious of him because the people were drawn to him and not them and even Pilot understood this to be the real reason why they delivered him up unto him to be crucified.

This is also why he made sure to put the words "King of the Jews" over the head of Jesus on the cross and also why it was so offensive to them as well, for they didn't want him to be that King that the prophets foretold would come out of the line of David's descendants.
John 14:10Do you not believe that I am in the Father, and the Father in Me? The words that I speak to you I do not speak on My own authority; but the Father who dwells in Me does the works. 11 Believe Me that I am in the Father and the Father in Me, or else believe Me for the sake of the works themselves.

Keeping a verse or verses in isolation to support your ideas and ignore the backdrop of chapter is wrong. After reading John 14 we can see that Jesus is stating in vs 10 that He is one with the Father, in essence, in speaking, and in acting.

You opened another can of worms, that you failed to address. Applying your logic to the passage, we can easily conclude that your Jesus has a psychological problem. Which is it? The Father in Jesus, Jesus is in the Father, or both?
Indeed, for it is truly a can of worms for you in the way that you read and interpret it for certain, but I understand it correctly and Jesus was doing no such thing as revealing that he was one God with the Father by what he said, not in your life TW.

In fact when Jesus said "have I been so long with you and yet you still don't know me Philip, he was speaking for Yahweh and not for himself when he said this and even went on to explain this in that 10th verse that you quoted "the words that I speak, I speak not of myself but it is the Father who dwells within me, he is doing the works".

Jesus couldn't have said it any better, that he was speaking for the Father who was dwelling within him and manifesting himself through the life of Jesus and this is what Paul meant also when he said that Jesus is in the form "morphe" of God.
.


Since you are arguing grammar. We are looking for the “glorious appearance” not the “appearance of glory” and the grammatical basis for this view is the widely acknowledged fact that a descriptive noun in the genitive [glory] following another noun[appearance] may exhibit an attributive use of the genitive, in which the noun functions as a description of the preceding(or “head”) noun. In this view, glory is what characterizes the appearance. Also the only one that appears is Jesus never the Father; therefore 2:13 speaks only of Jesus.

Nope, that isn't how it is stated and that is also why not all of the translations agree with the versions you cherry pick for this passage about it either and I am not interested in your biased rule of grammar on this, for the fact that many translations don't agree with your version proves that you cannot be dogmatic about it like you want to be.

It actually reads like this in the original " Titus 2:13 while we wait for the blessed hope—the appearing of the glory of our great God and Savior, Jesus Christ".


Paul is calling Jesus "The Glory of our Great God and Savior" and not "Our Great God and 'Savior" like you are chopping it up to be saying in your false religious bias.



By this, Paul is saying basically the same thing as he did in Colossians 1:15 "who is the image of the invisible God", for it is through Jesus that God reveals himself and his glory but that doesn't make Jesus Yahweh God like you falsely believe about it.
 
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God walks into His Temple.

Haggai sixth century BC.
Ha 2:6 “For thus says the Lord of hosts: ‘Once more (it is a little while) I will shake heaven and earth, the sea and dry land; 7 and I will shake all nations, and they shall come to the Desire of All Nations, and I will fill this temple with glory,’ says the Lord of hosts. 8 ‘The silver is Mine, and the gold is Mine,’ says the Lord of hosts. 9 ‘The glory of this latter temple shall be greater than the former,’ says the Lord of hosts. ‘And in this place, I will give peace,’ says the Lord of hosts.”


During one of his motivational speeches, the Prophet Haggai states that the glory of the latter temple would be greater than the glory of the former temple. How is that possible if God's glory filled Solomon's Temple after the dedication?

The glory of the First Temple.

Ch 7:1 When Solomon had finished praying, fire came down from heaven and consumed the burnt offering and the sacrifices; and the glory of the Lord filled the temple.

The glory of the second Temple


We are all familiar with the following verse that the Apostle Matthew ascribes to Jesus Christ. Note what "Lord" and "God" translate from.

Is 40:3 The voice of one crying in the wilderness: “Prepare the way of the Lord [YHWH]; Make straight in the desert A highway for our God [Elohim].​


The same is repeated by Malachi, note the similarities.

Mal 3:1 “Behold, I send My messenger, And he will prepare the way before Me.​

And the Lord, whom you seek, Will suddenly come to His temple, Even the Messenger of the covenant, In whom you delight. Behold, He is coming,” Says the Lord {YHWH} of hosts.


In Isaiah 40:3, which is always ascribed to Jesus, the voice crying in the wilderness is preparing the way of YHWH. In Mt chapter three Matthew identifies this person as John the Baptist who prepared the way for Jesus Christ.

In Mal 3:1 we have basically the same scenario about the 'messenger' or 'voice crying in the wilderness preparing the way before YHWH, with additional information about YHWH coming to His temple.


Haggai 3:9 states that the latter temple will be greater than the former temple. The former temple had the Ark of the Covenant, the Urim and Thummim, and the Shechinah glory, so how would the glory of the latter temple exceed the glory of the former? It is the presence of Jesus Christ, the Messiah, the Son of God, and God preaching and working miracles in the temple.


1. Haggai states that the glory of the second temple exceeds the glory of the first.

2. Malachi states that YHWH will come to His temple after He sends His messenger before Him.

3. Isaiah in 40:3 writes that the 'voice crying in the wilderness' will prepare the way for YHWH.

4. The Apostle Matthew ascribes Isaiah 40:3 to Jesus.

Conclusion the glory of the latter temple will be greater than the glory of the former temple because Jesus who is identified as YHWH in the above verses will not appear in a cloud above the temple or behind the curtain but physically interact with His creation within His temple.
Amen !
 
Yes really and you did nothing of the sort but only in your delusional imagination.


LOL, the Jews knew what it really meant to be called "God's Son" from David's words in Palms 2 where God began this in His decree that David was his Son, for David said "I will declare the decree, Yahweh has said unto me, You are my Son this day have I begotten you".

Then after David this position with God went to Solomon David's anointed son and right on down through the anointed by God from David's descendants to the one that they were only the types of and which is Jesus Christ.

Therefore your idea that Jesus was calling himself Yahweh by admitting to them that he was the Son of God is nothing but your false indoctrination and imagination about it.

For no such thing was even being hinted on from Jesus' answer to them and that includes your wacky idea that him saying that he would be appearing in the clouds was the same as telling them he was Yahweh himself.


Already covered how foolish this assumption really is in my second response to this post.

HIs being received into heaven in a cloud and returning in clouds has nothing whatsoever to do with him being revealed to be Yahweh but rather the Son of man and Son of David and Son of God which we see in Daniel 7:13-14 below.


Daniel 7:13 “In my vision at night I looked, and there before me was one like a son of man,[a] coming with the clouds of heaven. He approached the Ancient of Days and was led into his presence. 14 He was given authority, glory and sovereign power; all nations and peoples of every language worshiped him. His dominion is an everlasting dominion that will not pass away, and his kingdom is one that will never be destroyed.

For he was confessing that he was the one who would receive the Kingdom from the real Ancient of Days Yahweh and this is what the Jews truly understood to be what Jesus was telling them when he said he would return and appear in the clouds with great power and glory unto them and not that he himself was the Ancient of Days that he would receive the kingdom from dude.

They didn't want Jesus to be the fulfillment of that prophecy of Daniel 7 because they hated his guts for exposing their sin and hypocrisy before all of the people of Israel.

They were also envious of him because the people were drawn to him and not them and even Pilot understood this to be the real reason why they delivered him up unto him to be crucified.

This is also why he made sure to put the words "King of the Jews" over the head of Jesus on the cross and also why it was so offensive to them as well, for they didn't want him to be that King that the prophets foretold would come out of the line of David's descendants.

Indeed, for it is truly a can of worms for you in the way that you read and interpret it for certain, but I understand it correctly and Jesus was doing no such thing as revealing that he was one God with the Father by what he said, not in your life TW.

In fact when Jesus said "have I been so long with you and yet you still don't know me Philip, he was speaking for Yahweh and not for himself when he said this and even went on to explain this in that 10th verse that you quoted "the words that I speak, I speak not of myself but it is the Father who dwells within me, he is doing the works".

Jesus couldn't have said it any better, that he was speaking for the Father who was dwelling within him and manifesting himself through the life of Jesus and this is what Paul meant also when he said that Jesus is in the form "morphe" of God.


Nope, that isn't how it is stated and that is also why not all of the translations agree with the versions you cherry pick for this passage about it either and I am not interested in your biased rule of grammar on this, for the fact that many translations don't agree with your version proves that you cannot be dogmatic about it like you want to be.

It actually reads like this in the original " Titus 2:13 while we wait for the blessed hope—the appearing of the glory of our great God and Savior, Jesus Christ".


Paul is calling Jesus "The Glory of our Great God and Savior" and not "Our Great God and 'Savior" like you are chopping it up to be saying in your false religious bias.



By this, Paul is saying basically the same thing as he did in Colossians 1:15 "who is the image of the invisible God", for it is through Jesus that God reveals himself and his glory but that doesn't make Jesus Yahweh God like you falsely believe about it.
Jesus was condemned by the Sanhedrin for ONE reason ONLY; His claim to be The Divine Son of God.
The reason the Jews hated the title The King of The Jews on the cross is that it signified The Divine King of Israel.
Our Great God and Savior, Jesus Christ, truly a unitarian, JW killer. NO Savior other than Jesus Christ.
 
Greetings again johnny guitar,

He was condemned for claiming to be the Christ, the Son of God, a human, not a God man.

Kind regards
Trevor
Claiming to be a man ONLY is hardly blasphemy, the charge for which He was executed. John 17:3
THE son of God was/is The Divine Son of God among ALL Jews.
 
Greetings again johnny guitar,
Claiming to be a man ONLY is hardly blasphemy
Claiming to be the Christ, the Son of God as a human is not blasphemy. He claimed to be the Son of God, not to be a man ONLY. They falsely accused him when he was speaking the truth.

Kind regards
Trevor
 
Greetings again johnny guitar,

Claiming to be the Christ, the Son of God as a human is not blasphemy. He claimed to be the Son of God, not to be a man ONLY. They falsely accused him when he was speaking the truth.

Kind regards
Trevor
NOT to be a man ONLY???
What else was He claiming in addition to being a man???It was obvious He was a man.
Why did the Sanhedrin go berserk, tearing their robes, screaming, slapping Him, and shouting blasphemy when He said He was The Son of God???You have yet to provide a valid explanation
 
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