What is the Oneness of God as taught by Oneness Pentecostals?

Andreas

Well-known member
Also known as Apostolic Pentecostals. What do they teach?

1. There is One God with no distinction of persons. God is indivisible in His nature and substance (Deuteronomy 6:4)
2. Jesus Christ of Nazareth is the one true God manifested in the flesh. He is the One God incarnate. The human personification of God.

- All the fullness of the Godhead dwells in him bodily (Colossians 2:9)

We claim that the Biblical teaching of theology by Isaiah, the Apostles and all the other prophets in the Bible is the Orthodox Christian teaching. We do not consider the later creeds, such as Nicene to be "orthodox" but are based in part on extra-Biblical revelation. We reject extra-Biblical revelation in forming theology doctrine. We acknowledge "Sola scriptura" seriously.

We are not against church history but if we have to choose, we go with the Bible over church history, church councils, and creeds.

We believe in Father, Son and Holy Ghost but do not hold that these are three distinct persons, but God is indivisible without distinction of persons.

The OT establishes that there is One God without distinction of persons. (Isaiah 45)

The One God is known to us as "Father" and is a term of relationship. He is our Creator, our source of life and our authority.

The Holy Ghost or Holy Spirit or Spirit of God is God but not another person of God. A human spirit is never thought of as another person of himself or herself but is the invisible essence of that person (1 Cor 2:12-13). The Holy Spirit is not another person of God but is God Himself in his spiritual essence, his spiritual presence, his spiritual action. When we pray to God and He responds to us, we feel His presence, we say 'that is the Holy Spirit'. We don't mean someone different than the one we just finished praying to. We mean that is God moving in our lives and world. The same God who we prayed to when we said 'Our Father who is in heaven', we then feel His presence and we say, 'that is God's Spirit'.

The Bible uses the term "Son of God" or "only begotten Son:", but never "God the Son" or "eternally begotten Son". The term Son has reference to the incarnation of God. Or, God manifested in the flesh (1 Timothy 3:16). The term Son indicates a beginning. The Son was called the Son because he was born of Mary (Luke 1:35). When the Bible says "the Son died" we don't mean that the eternal God ceased to exist, but the man whom God became died as to his flesh like other men die. The Son was the one true God manifested in the flesh as a genuine man (human body, human soul, human spirit).

What about Stephen seeing Jesus at the right hand of God?

Psalm 110:1 "The LORD said to my Lord sit at my right hand until I make your enemies your footstool" This is when the man Jesus ascended to the heavens and is in the highest place of authority. Stephen didn't see God standing next to Jesus. Stephen literally "saw" only one (Jesus) and Jesus and the "glory of God" (acts 7:54-60). This is not something we explain away, but it needs to be Biblically understood in the context of what the "right hand of God" means as it was originally understood, not our forced interpretation through modern English. It is not to be taken as a literal two bodies next to each other. Even Martin Luther said the heretics are mistaken if they think this means Jesus sitting in a golden chair next to someone else.

God is Spirit, God is invisible and fills the heavens. So to think of two different bodies of God is a mistake. The OT indicates that the "right hand" indicates a place of power (Exodus 15:6). In Matthew 26:64 Jesus said, "you will see the Son of man coming in the clouds on the right hand of power". No one believes that Jesus will come back a 2nd time standing on top of a big right hand as he descends from heaven! Are two coming back with a bigger one holding out his hand and Jesus sitting on it? Of course not! Which perspective North America or Asia is it the right hand? Colossian 1:15

Stephen prayed only to Jesus. He didn't say "Father, Son, and Holy Ghost" as he was dying.

Jesus praying (John 17) - Why did Jesus pray to the Father? Not only is Jesus God, but to understand the prayers of Jesus we must also fully accept that he was truly man. Psalm 65:2 says all flesh comes to God. So, as God manifested in flesh as a genuine man, Jesus prayed. If you are a human being you are going to pray to God. Jesus was tempted in all points like we are yet without sin. The prayers of Christ prove that He was a genuine human being just like us except for sin. It would be shocking if He didn't pray because how could he be a righteous man and not pray and submit to the will of God.?

The prayers do not indicate a distinction in the Godhead, but they tell us that he was an authentic human being. Out of his human identity He prayed. This is the mystery of the incarnation. Saying that there are multiple persons in the Godhead doesn't solve this mystery it makes it worse because then you have one person of God praying to another person of God. This makes one person inferior and subordinate and the other is superior and supreme. If the Trinitarian response is that it is just according to the flesh, then this is what we are saying. If only one God person became man, then you have a question as to how the man related to not just God the Father but God the Son. Was the human son praying to the eternal Son, the Trinity or just one member of the Trinity? You have three God persons and a man and thus six possible relationships.


What about Jesus praying, "Father, not my will but thy will be done"? This is not speaking of two divine wills of two eternal persons but the will of the man to the will of God or the Godhead.

1 Timothy 3:16 "Great is the mystery of godliness, God was manifested in the flesh". The mystery is the incarnation, not an incomprehensible three persons in God.

The amazing thing is that God loved us so much that he permanently became one of us to save us.

Things Oneness isn't:
Oneness people deny the Father and Holy Spirit. - Not true
God and Jesus are two persons - Not true
God is sometimes the Father and sometimes the Son and sometimes the Holy Spirit - not true
Jesus is a ventriloquist - not true
God jumps from one role as Father to another role as Son and then back and forth - not true


Acknowledgements to the teaching of Dr. David Bernard and Dr. David Norris
 
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Jesus praying (John 17) - Why did Jesus pray to the Father? Not only is Jesus God, but to understand the prayers of Jesus we must also fully accept that he was truly man. Psalm 65:2 says all flesh comes to God. So, as God manifested in flesh as a genuine man, Jesus prayed. If you are a human being you are going to pray to God. Jesus was tempted in all points like we are yet without sin. The prayers of Christ prove that He was a genuine human being just like us except for sin. It would be shocking if He didn't pray because how could he be a righteous man and not pray and submit to the will of God.?

If Jesus was truly man, a human being, when He prayed, how could He as only a man claimed to have had glory with the Father before the world was? How would John's audience have understood these words of Jesus?

1 Timothy 3:16 "Great is the mystery of godliness, God was manifested in the flesh". The mystery is the incarnation, not an incomprehensible three persons in God.

1Ti 3:16 Great indeed, we confess, is the mystery of godliness: He was manifested in the flesh, vindicated by the Spirit, seen by angels, proclaimed among the nations, believed on in the world, taken up in glory.

Robertson: "He who (hos). The correct text, not theos (God) the reading of the Textus Receptus"

Who was taken up in glory?
 
If Jesus was truly man, a human being, when He prayed, how could He as only a man claimed to have had glory with the Father before the world was? How would John's audience have understood these words of Jesus?



1Ti 3:16 Great indeed, we confess, is the mystery of godliness: He was manifested in the flesh, vindicated by the Spirit, seen by angels, proclaimed among the nations, believed on in the world, taken up in glory.

Robertson: "He who (hos). The correct text, not theos (God) the reading of the Textus Receptus"

Who was taken up in glory?

Are you just trying to start a discussion? Both Trinitarians and Oneness teach that Jesus was "truly man". It's even in Trinitarian creeds, so I'm a bit puzzled by your question. He is both God and man.

A difference between Oneness and Trinity is that Trinitarians believe that the person called God the Son became incarnate and Oneness teaches that the One God became incarnate and was called the Son of God.
 
Are you just trying to start a discussion? Both Trinitarians and Oneness teach that Jesus was "truly man". It's even in Trinitarian creeds, so I'm a bit puzzled by your question. He is both God and man.

A difference between Oneness and Trinity is that Trinitarians believe that the person called God the Son became incarnate and Oneness teaches that the One God became incarnate and was called the Son of God.
I addressed a flaw in your doctrine. And you didn't answer the questions.
 
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I addressed a flaw in your doctrine. And you didn't answer the questions.

1 Timothy 3:16 tells us who was taken into glory... the one who was manifested in the flesh. This one is God. Jesus is both God and man. You think that you understand Oneness doctrine but you really just have a superficial and often inaccurate view. This is why you believe you have found a "flaw". Do you really believe that any issue you may be thinking of hasn't already been addressed by me previously? Certainly other Oneness teachers have. I'm not convinced that your level of focus on this topic is sufficient for you to actually listen to an answer. Are you willing or no?
 
1 Timothy 3:16 tells us who was taken into glory... the one who was manifested in the flesh. This one is God. Jesus is both God and man. You think that you understand Oneness doctrine but you really just have a superficial and often inaccurate view. This is why you believe you have found a "flaw". Do you really believe that any issue you may be thinking of hasn't already been addressed by me previously? Certainly other Oneness teachers have. I'm not convinced that your level of focus on this topic is sufficient for you to actually listen to an answer. Are you willing or no?
 
Jesus has always existed with God (Father) as the Son of God and though Elohim is singular it is a singular plurality which is why you can have God as the Father and the Son existing together. We think of ourselves as individual entities or souls but is it that way in God? God bless you. :)
 
Also known as Apostolic Pentecostals. What do they teach?

1. There is One God with no distinction of persons. God is indivisible in His nature and substance (Deuteronomy 6:4)
GINOLJC, to all.
Let's take this one step at a time. "God is indivisible in His nature and substance (Deuteronomy 6:4)"
OK, lets see if what this statement say is true. the term "indivisible".

scripture, #1. Isaiah 41:4 "Who hath wrought and done it, calling the generations from the beginning? I the LORD, the first, and with the last; I am he." Question, "is this one person? " lets see,

scripture, #2. Isaiah 48:12 "Hearken unto me, O Jacob and Israel, my called; I am he; I am the first, I also am the last.". the term "ALSO" means, in addition; too. and addition too means more than one. so if the LORD is "ALSO" the Last is this two persons that he is, and "WITH?"

ONENESS, your answer please.

PICJAG, 101G.
 
GINOLJC, to all.
Let's take this one step at a time. "God is indivisible in His nature and substance (Deuteronomy 6:4)"
OK, lets see if what this statement say is true. the term "indivisible".

scripture, #1. Isaiah 41:4 "Who hath wrought and done it, calling the generations from the beginning? I the LORD, the first, and with the last; I am he." Question, "is this one person? " lets see,

scripture, #2. Isaiah 48:12 "Hearken unto me, O Jacob and Israel, my called; I am he; I am the first, I also am the last.". the term "ALSO" means, in addition; too. and addition too means more than one. so if the LORD is "ALSO" the Last is this two persons that he is, and "WITH?"

ONENESS, your answer please.

PICJAG, 101G.
No it is one single person that is a plurality and I also referrers to the first "I". God is not referring to himself as a plurality but God is. The plurality is all that exist are eternally complete in God and God is complete in them. God bless you. :)
 
No it is one single person that is a plurality and I also referrers to the first "I". God is not referring to himself as a plurality but God is. The plurality is all that exist are eternally complete in God and God is complete in them. God bless you. :)
first thanks for the reply, but your statement, it makes no sense, "God is not referring to himself as a plurality but God is". please explain this.
thanks in advance.

PICJAG, 101G.
 
first thanks for the reply, but your statement, it makes no sense, "God is not referring to himself as a plurality but God is". please explain this.
thanks in advance.

PICJAG, 101G.
Elohim means God is a singular plurality but in the scripture you quote is speaking concerning his person not his nature or oneness. However, others (many) scriptures do speak of God as a plurality in describing God's nature or oneness as a plurality. God bless you. :)
 
Elohim means God is a singular plurality but in the scripture you quote is speaking concerning his person not his nature or oneness. However, others (many) scriptures do speak of God as a plurality in describing God's nature or oneness as a plurality. God bless you. :)
ERROR, Elohim means God is a plurality of the Singular one person God the elowahh, listen to the definitions,

H430 אֱלֹהִים 'elohiym (el-o-heem') n-m.
אֱלֹהֵי 'elohiy (el-o-hee') [alternate plural]
1. (literally) supreme ones.
2. (hence, in the ordinary sense) gods.
3. (specifically, in the plural, especially with the article) the Supreme God (i.e. the all supreme).
4. (sometimes) supreme, used as a superlative.
5. (occasionally, by way of deference) supreme magistrates, the highest magistrates of the land.
6. (also) the supreme angels (entities of unspecified type).
[plural of H433]
KJV: angels, X exceeding, God (gods)(-dess, -ly), X (very) great, judges, X mighty.
Root(s): H433

Now
H433 אֱלוֹהַּ 'elowahh (el-o'-ah) n-m.
אֱלֹהַּ 'eloahh (el-o'-ah) [shortened (rarely)]
1. one with supreme strength and ability.
2. the Supreme Being, God the Creator, Yahweh by name.
3. a supreme entity, a god-like creature (that is, one of God's supreme creations, or one of man's inventions).
[probably prolonged (emphat.) from H410]
KJV: God, god.
Root(s): H410

understand H430 אֱלֹהִים 'elohiym is the plural of H433 אֱלוֹהַּ 'elowahh (el-o'-ah), so, try again,

PICJAG, 101G.
 
ERROR, Elohim means God is a plurality of the Singular one person God the elowahh, listen to the definitions,

H430 אֱלֹהִים 'elohiym (el-o-heem') n-m.
אֱלֹהֵי 'elohiy (el-o-hee') [alternate plural]
1. (literally) supreme ones.
2. (hence, in the ordinary sense) gods.
3. (specifically, in the plural, especially with the article) the Supreme God (i.e. the all supreme).
4. (sometimes) supreme, used as a superlative.
5. (occasionally, by way of deference) supreme magistrates, the highest magistrates of the land.
6. (also) the supreme angels (entities of unspecified type).
[plural of H433]
KJV: angels, X exceeding, God (gods)(-dess, -ly), X (very) great, judges, X mighty.
Root(s): H433

Now
H433 אֱלוֹהַּ 'elowahh (el-o'-ah) n-m.
אֱלֹהַּ 'eloahh (el-o'-ah) [shortened (rarely)]
1. one with supreme strength and ability.
2. the Supreme Being, God the Creator, Yahweh by name.
3. a supreme entity, a god-like creature (that is, one of God's supreme creations, or one of man's inventions).
[probably prolonged (emphat.) from H410]
KJV: God, god.
Root(s): H410

understand H430 אֱלֹהִים 'elohiym is the plural of H433 אֱלוֹהַּ 'elowahh (el-o'-ah), so, try again,

PICJAG, 101G.
However, I am referring to this scripture though Elohim is not mentioned "Lord" is.

Isa 41:4 Who hath wrought and done it, calling the generations from the beginning? I the LORD, the first, and with the last; I am he.

H3068
יְהֹוָה
yehôvâh
yeh-ho-vaw'
From H1961; (the) self Existent or eternal; Jehovah, Jewish national name of God: - Jehovah, the Lord. Compare H3050, H3069.

God bless you. :)
 
However, I am referring to this scripture though Elohim is not mentioned "Lord" is.
thanks for the reply, but another ERROR on your part. listen, Psalms 110:1 "A Psalm of David. The LORD said unto my Lord, Sit thou at my right hand, until I make thine enemies thy footstool." Lord here in verse 1 is
H113 אָדוֹן 'adown (aw-done') n-m.
אָדֹן 'adon (aw-done') [shortened]
1. sovereign (i.e. controller, human or divine).
2. lord.
{also used as a prefix for names}
[from an unused root (meaning to rule)]
KJV: lord, master, owner.

understand, the same Lord in verse 5 is the same Lord in verse 1, and here is the definition,
H136 אֲדֹנָי 'Adonay (ad-o-noy') n-m.
1. (meaning) Lord (used as a proper name of God only).
2. (person) Adonai, The Lord God of Israel (which is actually “Yahweh God of Israel” - see Exodus 5:1 and 120 other occurrences).
[am emphatic form of H113]

KJV: (my) Lord.
Root(s): H113

did you see it? the emphatic form of H113 which is Lord in verse #1. the same one person, but in Flesh.... understand now?
but in the scripture you quote is speaking concerning his person not his nature or oneness.
again, ERROR, and here's why. I agree with the statement, "God is indivisible in His nature and substance (Deuteronomy 6:4)", but also likewise in person. and this is answered in the TERM"SHARING" equally , or as the Greek the term... "ANOTHER", meaning of one's self which G243 allos, clearly explaines.
which means God is a "DIVERSITY" of himself. not indivisible in His nature or person, but EQUALLY shared in PLACE, TIME, ORDER, or RANK. in NATURE and Person, as "WITH" expressed in Isaiah 41:1, and Isaiah 48:12. just as the term Beginning at Genesis 1:1 states, and Deuteronomy 6:4 confirms.

PICJAG, 101G.
 
thanks for the reply, but another ERROR on your part. listen, Psalms 110:1 "A Psalm of David. The LORD said unto my Lord, Sit thou at my right hand, until I make thine enemies thy footstool." Lord here in verse 1 is
H113 אָדוֹן 'adown (aw-done') n-m.
אָדֹן 'adon (aw-done') [shortened]
1. sovereign (i.e. controller, human or divine).
2. lord.
{also used as a prefix for names}
[from an unused root (meaning to rule)]
KJV: lord, master, owner.

understand, the same Lord in verse 5 is the same Lord in verse 1, and here is the definition,
H136 אֲדֹנָי 'Adonay (ad-o-noy') n-m.
1. (meaning) Lord (used as a proper name of God only).
2. (person) Adonai, The Lord God of Israel (which is actually “Yahweh God of Israel” - see Exodus 5:1 and 120 other occurrences).
[am emphatic form of H113]

KJV: (my) Lord.
Root(s): H113

did you see it? the emphatic form of H113 which is Lord in verse #1. the same one person, but in Flesh.... understand now?

again, ERROR, and here's why. I agree with the statement, "God is indivisible in His nature and substance (Deuteronomy 6:4)", but also likewise in person. and this is answered in the TERM"SHARING" equally , or as the Greek the term... "ANOTHER", meaning of one's self which G243 allos, clearly explaines.
which means God is a "DIVERSITY" of himself. not indivisible in His nature or person, but EQUALLY shared in PLACE, TIME, ORDER, or RANK. in NATURE and Person, as "WITH" expressed in Isaiah 41:1, and Isaiah 48:12. just as the term Beginning at Genesis 1:1 states, and Deuteronomy 6:4 confirms.

PICJAG, 101G.
Thanks for your input! God bless you. :)
 
Also known as Apostolic Pentecostals. What do they teach?

1. There is One God with no distinction of persons. God is indivisible in His nature and substance (Deuteronomy 6:4)
2. Jesus Christ of Nazareth is the one true God manifested in the flesh. He is the One God incarnate. The human personification of God.

- All the fullness of the Godhead dwells in him bodily (Colossians 2:9)

What are persons in this context? It seems like you just defining yourself in light of those with whom you disagree.

We claim that the Biblical teaching of theology by Isaiah, the Apostles and all the other prophets in the Bible is the Orthodox Christian teaching. We do not consider the later creeds, such as Nicene to be "orthodox" but are based in part on extra-Biblical revelation. We reject extra-Biblical revelation in forming theology doctrine. We acknowledge "Sola scriptura" seriously.

We are not against church history but if we have to choose, we go with the Bible over church history, church councils, and creeds.

We believe in Father, Son and Holy Ghost but do not hold that these are three distinct persons, but God is indivisible without distinction of persons.

So, what are "Father, Son and Holy Ghost" if they are not "three distinct persons"? If you are going to present your position, then present what you believe, not what you deny.

The OT establishes that there is One God without distinction of persons. (Isaiah 45)

The One God is known to us as "Father" and is a term of relationship. He is our Creator, our source of life and our authority.

The Holy Ghost or Holy Spirit or Spirit of God is God but not another person of God. A human spirit is never thought of as another person of himself or herself but is the invisible essence of that person (1 Cor 2:12-13). The Holy Spirit is not another person of God but is God Himself in his spiritual essence, his spiritual presence, his spiritual action. When we pray to God and He responds to us, we feel His presence, we say 'that is the Holy Spirit'. We don't mean someone different than the one we just finished praying to. We mean that is God moving in our lives and world. The same God who we prayed to when we said 'Our Father who is in heaven', we then feel His presence and we say, 'that is God's Spirit'.

Thank you for providing a more positive assertion of your belief. Perhaps instead of saying what you don't think it true about the Holy Spirit, you stick with what you believe.

The Bible uses the term "Son of God" or "only begotten Son:", but never "God the Son" or "eternally begotten Son". The term Son has reference to the incarnation of God. Or, God manifested in the flesh (1 Timothy 3:16). The term Son indicates a beginning. The Son was called the Son because he was born of Mary (Luke 1:35). When the Bible says "the Son died" we don't mean that the eternal God ceased to exist, but the man whom God became died as to his flesh like other men die. The Son was the one true God manifested in the flesh as a genuine man (human body, human soul, human spirit).

That's stilly; there is no difference between Son of God and God the Son in Greek. And technically, Scripture never says "only begotten Son". μονογενὴς υἱός means the unique, one of a kind, Son. If you feel the need to assert grammatical falsehoods into your statements of faith, what does that say about your position.

Jesus praying (John 17) - Why did Jesus pray to the Father? Not only is Jesus God, but to understand the prayers of Jesus we must also fully accept that he was truly man. Psalm 65:2 says all flesh comes to God. So, as God manifested in flesh as a genuine man, Jesus prayed. If you are a human being you are going to pray to God. Jesus was tempted in all points like we are yet without sin. The prayers of Christ prove that He was a genuine human being just like us except for sin. It would be shocking if He didn't pray because how could he be a righteous man and not pray and submit to the will of God.?

The prayers do not indicate a distinction in the Godhead, but they tell us that he was an authentic human being. Out of his human identity He prayed. This is the mystery of the incarnation. Saying that there are multiple persons in the Godhead doesn't solve this mystery it makes it worse because then you have one person of God praying to another person of God. This makes one person inferior and subordinate and the other is superior and supreme. If the Trinitarian response is that it is just according to the flesh, then this is what we are saying. If only one God person became man, then you have a question as to how the man related to not just God the Father but God the Son. Was the human son praying to the eternal Son, the Trinity or just one member of the Trinity? You have three God persons and a man and thus six possible relationships.

So in order to prove to us that he was authentically human, Jesus pretended to pray to himself? Wouldn't that cause confusion? You really shouldn't be comparing your position to another when defining your position.

Things Oneness isn't:
Oneness people deny the Father and Holy Spirit. - Not true
God and Jesus are two persons - Not true
God is sometimes the Father and sometimes the Son and sometimes the Holy Spirit - not true
Jesus is a ventriloquist - not true
God jumps from one role as Father to another role as Son and then back and forth - not true

Acknowledgements to the teaching of Dr. David Bernard and Dr. David Norris

I took from this post that you guys definitely define yourself as not Trinitarian. You're position isn't defined in an of itself; it's a clearly just a rejection of something else. What does that say about your position?

God Bless
 
Also known as Apostolic Pentecostals. What do they teach?

1. There is One God with no distinction of persons. God is indivisible in His nature and substance (Deuteronomy 6:4)
2. Jesus Christ of Nazareth is the one true God manifested in the flesh. He is the One God incarnate. The human personification of God.
- All the fullness of the Godhead dwells in him bodily (Colossians 2:9)
GINOLJC, to all.
our brother in Christ, Andreas, have laid some ground work for us to dig in.
Please understand, first of all, "I'm a Diversified ONENESS". I hope many understand what I said. by being a Diversified ONENESS, it confirms what the Lord Jesus taught, and is in his ECHAD of himself in "PLACE", TIME", "ORDER", or "RANK"
"PLACE": NT, OT, and the New Creation to come
"TIME": in dispensation of it, which are in three designations, Which was, which is, and which is to come, or as in what God is "I AM THAT I AM.
"ORDER": in Ordinal designations of FIRST and LAST, in which God in the ECHAD holds the titles, Father/CREATOR, and MAKER of "All Things". title, Son/REDEEMER, and SAVIOUR of "ALL THINGS" that he created and made.
"RANK" Ordinal First/LORD, all caps. Spirit. (OT & NT). Ordinal Last/Lord, only the "L" is capitalized, (NT). why? because of a. his diversity in flesh and blood. but b. his Nature is the same only shared in a G2758 κενόω kenoo (ke-no-ō') state, because in the shared state he made himself, as the definition states, 1. to make empty.

and upon his resurrection, the nature is the same, only shared in an amalgamation, with his glorified state, of flesh and Bone, BUT NO BLOOD, (just as G243 allos, and Colossians 2:9, states, with all power), because now glorified in the powers as before, after his G2758 κενόω kenoo (ke-no-ō') in flesh and blood. hence the statement John 17:3-5 fulfilled in Colossians 2:9. THIS IS THE NEW CREATION, "MAN", SPIRIT IN GLORIFIED FLESH.

from this deduction statement above, the Godhead is explained correctly, and every question answered concerning God.

PICJAG, 101G.
 
GINOLJC, to all.
our brother in Christ, Andreas, have laid some ground work for us to dig in.
Please understand, first of all, "I'm a Diversified ONENESS". I hope many understand what I said. by being a Diversified ONENESS, it confirms what the Lord Jesus taught, and is in his ECHAD of himself in "PLACE", TIME", "ORDER", or "RANK"
"PLACE": NT, OT, and the New Creation to come
"TIME": in dispensation of it, which are in three designations, Which was, which is, and which is to come, or as in what God is "I AM THAT I AM.
"ORDER": in Ordinal designations of FIRST and LAST, in which God in the ECHAD holds the titles, Father/CREATOR, and MAKER of "All Things". title, Son/REDEEMER, and SAVIOUR of "ALL THINGS" that he created and made.
"RANK" Ordinal First/LORD, all caps. Spirit. (OT & NT). Ordinal Last/Lord, only the "L" is capitalized, (NT). why? because of a. his diversity in flesh and blood. but b. his Nature is the same only shared in a G2758 κενόω kenoo (ke-no-ō') state, because in the shared state he made himself, as the definition states, 1. to make empty.

and upon his resurrection, the nature is the same, only shared in an amalgamation, with his glorified state, of flesh and Bone, BUT NO BLOOD, (just as G243 allos, and Colossians 2:9, states, with all power), because now glorified in the powers as before, after his G2758 κενόω kenoo (ke-no-ō') in flesh and blood. hence the statement John 17:3-5 fulfilled in Colossians 2:9. THIS IS THE NEW CREATION, "MAN", SPIRIT IN GLORIFIED FLESH.

from this deduction statement above, the Godhead is explained correctly, and every question answered concerning God.

PICJAG, 101G.

Andreas, this is a statement of Faith. Notice, 101G just said what he believed as opposed to stating what he doesn't believe. I don't believe he is even close to explaining every question, because that's impossible.

God Bless
 
Andreas, this is a statement of Faith. Notice, 101G just said what he believed as opposed to stating what he doesn't believe. I don't believe he is even close to explaining every question, because that's impossible.

God Bless
personal opinion? because a statement of Faith could be wrong..... (smile). I'm sure the JW statement of faith to them is correct....... :eek:

so, just because it's a statement of Faith.... it proves nothing.

PICJAG, 101G
 
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