BJ Bear
Well-known member
@davbeh2010The time of day the Paschal lamb was slaughtered is not "doctrine" in our church. We just believe it was slaughtered sometime near or at sunset and leave it at that. It isn't a "doctrine" we MUST believe in order to be good Lutherans and certainly not to be saved.
Look it up for yourself since you are so fixated on the time of day and believe anyone who thinks differently than you is wrong. Me, I don't think it makes a particle of difference if the lamb was slaughtered right before, at, or after sunset. You are making a Mt. Everest out of an anthill--and for no reason.
You are the one making an issue out of a non-issue. But you have yet to answer my simple questions...why is that? They are in post no. 351 on this thread. Care finally to give us a direct answer to those three questions?
Bonnie, your post led me to do a little poking around in English translations and it demonstrated that the translation in Exodus 12:6 as, "between the evenings, is losing favor. Good, bad, or indifferent that is the impression I was left with.
The question which came to mind is why? This representative example from Scripture occurs in Exodus 16:12-13. It uses, "between the evenings," and, "evening, as equivalent expresións.
The recent electronic KJVs use "evening" rather than "twilight" in verse 12 as does my old hardcopy of a KJV edition. I have freely modified the pertinent words in verses 12 sand 13 to correspond with the old hardcopy.
“12. I have heard the murmurings of the children of Israel: speak unto them, saying, At twilight ye shall eat flesh, and in the morning ye shall be filled with bread; and ye shall know that I am the Lord your God. 13. And it came to pass, that at evening the quails came up, and covered the camp: and in the morning the dew lay round about the host.” (Exo 16:12-13, KJVA)
If Moses uses the terms in an equivalent manner then it would be to go beyond Scripture to claim that there is an impassible gulf between the meanings of the two words.