The above is absurd.
The word "omniscient" does not occur in the GNT, but God is omniscient.
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GNT grammar does not support “ God the son”
- Thread starter The Real John Milton
- Start date
The above is absurd.
The word "omniscient" does not occur in the GNT, but God is omniscient.
Why on earth should I reply to someone who has only entered an appearance on this forum to insult me?Given the discussion here I can't help but ask where in the Greek Grammar you can find the proof of this assertion?
I think I can see why Roman Catholics like you have so much trouble with the Greek NT: Latin has no definite article as in the Greek, so your Latin NT doesn't read the same as the Greek: that must cause you endless confusion.
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I think it almost does in Jhn 2:24: τὸ γινώσκειν πάντας
It does not specifically say "omniscient".
It teaches it.
Thanks for proving my point that there is more than one way to express a truth claim.
John Milton
Well-known member
I pointed out the FACT that you don’t know Greek and are pretending that you do. That’s an important thing for people to know.Why on earth should I reply to someone who has only entered an appearance on this forum to insult me?
I’m not Roman Catholic.I think I can see why Roman Catholics
I don’t have any trouble with the GNT.like you have so much trouble with the Greek NT:
I don’t have reading ability in Latin and have never claimed to. Why do say things that aren’t true?Latin has no definite article as in the Greek, so your Latin NT doesn't read the same as the Greek: that must cause you endless confusion.
The Real John Milton
Well-known member
“ God the Son” is not a “word,” it is a nonsensical expression, like “ God the Lucifer” or “ Donald the Duck.”The above is absurd.
The word "omniscient" does not occur in the GNT, but God is omniscient.
The Real John Milton
Well-known member
I pointed out the FACT that you don’t know Greek and are pretending that you do. That’s an important thing for people to know.
I’m not Roman Catholic.
I don’t have any trouble with the GNT.
I don’t have reading ability in Latin and have never claimed to. Why do say things that aren’t true?
He seems to know more biblical Greek than you do. But that is just my opinion.
Stop the trolling & maybe contribute something of substance one way or other .
The Real John Milton
Well-known member
I’m glad the bible doesn’t use the word παντογνώστης to describe God but rather an expression like τὸ γινώσκειν πάντα. I think παντογνώστης ( the common Greek word for omniscient) is applied even to human beings and to the “ gods” of the Greeks, like Zeus.
Previously you haven't denied being a Catholic.I’m not Roman Catholic.
You seem to think ὁ Θεὸς is used of Jesus, as presumably it is also used of the pagan gods. This creates large difficulties in distinguishing paganism from Christianity.I don’t have any trouble with the GNT.
I was speaking generically of Roman Catholics. If they learned Koine Greek in place of Latin, it would spiritually benefit them.I don’t have reading ability in Latin and have never claimed to. Why do say things that aren’t true?
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I think the Greek does specifically say"omniscient". It's just that the translators chose not to translate it that way due to the context of its usage being qualified, so the translators gave the qualified rendition, as they are free to do. Besides which, did the modern Greek word for "omniscient" exist at the time of Jesus? I think not. The GNT tends not to contain modern Greek words for an obvious reason: it is written in Koine Greek.It does not specifically say "omniscient".
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I think you're onto something, but I don't think παντογνώστης is Koine Greek, but could be wrong. Rather πάνσοφος; and I guess the personality of the historically wrathful Hebrew God and Greek philosophical words used of lesser beings weren't a good mixture for the apostles.I’m glad the bible doesn’t use the word παντογνώστης to describe God but rather an expression like τὸ γινώσκειν πάντα. I think παντογνώστης ( the common Greek word for omniscient) is applied even to human beings and to the “ gods” of the Greeks, like Zeus.
The Real John Milton
Well-known member
I don’t think so either. My point was that even if it were, it would yet be an inappropriate descriptive of the God of Israel , because of the pagan baggage it carries.I think you're onto something, but I don't think παντογνώστης is Koine Greek, but could be wrong. Rather πάνσοφος; and I guess the personality of the historically wrathful Hebrew God and Greek philosophical words used of lesser beings weren't a good mixture for the apostles.
The Real John Milton
Well-known member
I can attest to this from some of his older posts; which is one reason why I believe his biblical Koine to be very weak.Previously you haven't denied being a Catholic.
You seem to think ὁ Θεὸς is used of Jesus, as presumably it is also used of the pagan gods. This creates large difficulties in distinguishing paganism from Christianity.
I was speaking generically of Roman Catholics. If they learned Koine Greek in place of Latin, it would spiritually benefit them.
Expressions are made up of words, genius.“ God the Son” is not a “word,” it is a nonsensical expression, like “ God the Lucifer” or “ Donald the Duck.”
The fact that He is prayed to as being YHWH demonstrates the Lord Jesus is God the Son (see post 36).
I think the Greek does specifically say"omniscient". It's just that the translators chose not to translate it that way due to the context of its usage being qualified, so the translators gave the qualified rendition, as they are free to do. Besides which, did the modern Greek word for "omniscient" exist at the time of Jesus? I think not. The GNT tends not to contain modern Greek words for an obvious reason: it is written in Koine Greek.
Thanks for admitting that the Lord Jesus is omniscient (= God).
The Real John Milton
Well-known member
Expressions are made up of words, genius.
"Omniscient" is a word, "God the Son" is not a word with a dictionary definition but a name (albeit a nonsensical, non-biblical one), so you were using a false analogy in the first instance.
The fact that He is prayed to as being YHWH demonstrates the Lord Jesus is God the Son (see post 36).
He is not.
I did not admit it. I admitted - and which is plain to see in the translations - only that ALL the translators derogate from "omniscient," because although the phraseology itself is capable of that sense, (at least in the neuter), the sense isn't made out in the context in which the phrase occurs. You are clueless about everything, and you are now perverting what the English translations say to suit your cultic "Priscillianist" teaching that betrays the heresy of Sabellius, long condemned by anathemas.Thanks for admitting that the Lord Jesus is omniscient (= God).
The Real John Milton
Well-known member
The false accusation fallacy unfortunately is often used by Trinitarians at Carm when they don't have a real case.I did not admit it. I admitted - and which is plain to see in the translations - only that ALL the translators derogate from "omniscient," because although the phraseology itself is capable of that sense, (at least in the neuter), the sense isn't made out in the context in which the phrase occurs. You are clueless about everything, and you are now perverting what the English translations say to suit your cultic "Priscillianist" teaching that betrays the heresy of Sabellius, long condemned by anathemas.
I wouldn't count him a Trinitarian. He is a Sabellian, but using Trinitarian language. Sabellians employ the same terms as Trinitarians, but they mean different things. The clincher is that for him, YHWH is Jesus, by definition. If YHWH, who is a singular person in the OT, is Jesus, then Jesus is the same person as the Father: i.e. he is a Sabellian.The false accusation fallacy unfortunately is often used by Trinitarians at Carm when they don't have a real case.
"God the Son" is not a word with a dictionary definition but a name (albeit a nonsensical, non-biblical one)
Your assertion is incorrect.
Jesus is YHWH (Romans 10:13) = God the Son.