What is Faith?

What can we do? I think going with what can be demonstrated is the rational approach, but yes, keeping an open mind to possibility is also good, but in the end, things have to be demonstrated.

in order to begin to prove perfection (God), you might need to become more perfected yourself

God not being at our level of understanding / comprehension maybe... without enough likeness in ourselves to begin to see what / how / why God might really be... and open to learning more -- about perfection (God), we might not really begin to 'see'
 
Not really, they are separate persons just of the same essence.

No, it is a rational derivation from Gods Word.
Yes a human creation.
What is a human creation? Gods Word or the Trinity?
El Cid said:
No, just what the universe was made out of was not detectable. Just like the BB theory has shown. Read Hebrews 11:3.

For expanding, Job 9:8, Psalm 104:2, and Isaiah 42:5 to name three verses. For winding down Romans 8:20-22.
Isaiah 42:5 says he stretches out the earth. Does that mean the earth is also expanding?
No, it means the earth is moving outward with the rest of the universe.
Seems to me that you are taking a poetic description and trying to equate it to a scientific finding. There is no evidence that that is how it was understood.
I am not saying the writer fully understood it at the time, but the Bible plainly teaches that there are two sources of Gods revelation, tbe Bible and nature. So nature can help us interpret His Bible more accurately, the more we learn about it.
 
What is a human creation? Gods Word or the Trinity?
Both.
No, it means the earth is moving outward with the rest of the universe.
Really? It doesn't sound like that. Moving outward from where?

I am not saying the writer fully understood it at the time, but the Bible plainly teaches that there are two sources of Gods revelation, tbe Bible and nature. So nature can help us interpret His Bible more accurately, the more we learn about it.
Learning more about nature actually undermines a literalist view of the Bible.
 
No, throughout the entire history of chemistry there has been no empirical evidence that chemicals can produce reasoning for the reason I mention below.
This doesn't deal with my point. You are saying that as "there has been no empirical evidence that chemicals can produce reasoning", you are not going to believe they can. My point is that there is no empirical evidence that reasoning was caused by anything else either, but nevertheless you believe it is. You are being inconsistent.
Yes, but it is more rational to believe that our reasoning ability came from a pre-existing form of logic in the mind of our cause rather than non-rational subatomic particles.
El Cid said:
The product of chemical reactions is based on the ratio of chemicals involved in the reaction. The product of reasoning is based on the weighing of premises and evidence. Obviously they are not the same things.
This again, is vague. Please clearly state what you mean.
Reasoning requires utilizing the laws of logic, not the laws of chemistry which is all that exists in the brain unless there is a non-physically based mind in there as well.
El Cid said:
We cant even think without the law of non-contradiction.
You have yet again made an unsupported claim. What does this even mean? What causal connection is there between the law of non-contradiction and the ability to think?
You have a job, you think to yourself that "I like this job" and "I hate this job". What have you thought about? Nothing. By violating the law of contradiction, your thoughts mean nothing to yourself. Now do you understand?

El Cid said:
I admit it is speculation. But the results are the same. Altering the brain which is used by the mind to reason and produce our personality would of course affect those abilities as well.
Mind altering pixies give the same result too.
Yes, but there is no evidence they exist. There is evidence the mind exists.
 
Yes, but it is more rational to believe that our reasoning ability came from a pre-existing form of logic in the mind of our cause rather than non-rational subatomic particles.
No it isn't, because you are assuming far more.

As has already been said, particles of course are not rational, but particular combinations of them in the form of brain cells can produce thought. Experiments have been done where certain part of the brain have been given electrical stimuli, and it replays memories.
Reasoning requires utilizing the laws of logic, not the laws of chemistry which is all that exists in the brain unless there is a non-physically based mind in there as well.
No it doesn't, there is no causal connection between the laws of logic and thought, and people think illogically all the time.
You have a job, you think to yourself that "I like this job" and "I hate this job". What have you thought about? Nothing. By violating the law of contradiction, your thoughts mean nothing to yourself. Now do you understand?
This makes no sense to me.
Yes, but there is no evidence they exist. There is evidence the mind exists.
There is poor evidence this mind exists, and you certainly haven't given any. All you've given is arguments.
 
There is no maybe about the fact that we have lots of chemical reactions going on in our bodies, and that includes our brains.

There is empirical evidence our brains give rise to consciousness as you have already been told. If you damage a part of the brain, we lose part of our mind. That is evidence the brain gives rise to the mind.

You won't believe the brain gives rise to consciousness on the grounds that you think there is no empirical evidence for it, but do believe the mind is a separate entity from the brain despite there being no empirical evidence for it.

Do you not see where you've gone wrong here?
No, see my previous post where I demonstrate that the results are the same whether the brain controls the mind or the mind uses the brain.
 
So you deny that "if everything is caused by natural events, then mental events are caused by natural events."

If you're going to be this blatantly nonsensical, there's no point in continuing this discussion.
If the events are part of naturalists' fantasy world, I dont deny it. But in the real world it is not possible.
 
If the events are part of naturalists' fantasy world, I dont deny it. But in the real world it is not possible.
You are just entirely ignoring what makes your comment so absurd: your refusal to acknowledge how the word "if" functions.

One last time: "If everything is caused by natural events, then mental events are caused by natural events" is very, very obviously true, even if it is not the case that everything is caused by natural events. If everything is made of atoms, then chairs are made of atoms, because chairs are part of "everything." If everything is subject to entropy, then stars are subject to entropy, because stars are part of "everything." And if everything is caused by natural events, then mental events are caused by natural events, because mental events are part of "everything."

You must recognize this, when it comes to every other sentence with "if" in it.

"If the Yankees win the World Series, they will be the champions of Major League Baseball."
"That's not true, because the Yankees are not going to win the World Series; they don't have strong enough pitching."

You can see -- I hope! -- that this objection is entirely ridiculous. The Yankee-hater either just has not mastered the implication of the word "if" in English sentences, or has some temporary blind spot about it, or is pretending to have such a blind spot. Because the statement, "If the Yankees win the World series, they will be MLB champions" is undeniably true, given that the definition of "MLB champion" is "winner of the World Series."

Your objection is equally ludicrous.
 
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If I understand you, what happens is that when the brain is damaged, it creates a kind of miasma which puts the mind under an illusion of danger. Is that about right?
Yes, though it is not necessarily always danger.
 
I explained in an earlier post how mathmatical logic is very different from abstract logic used for reasoning. The product of Chemical reactions are predetermined by the ratio of the reagents not the weighing of premises and arguments. So there is no reasoning without free will.
Why can the weighing of premises and argument not occur through chemicals arranging in a certain way?
Because as I stated chemicals operate according to the laws of chemistry or physics (this has been empirically observed for at least 500 years, minds operate according to the laws of logic.
Mathematical logic can occur in materials arranged in a certain way.
Yes, but math is bound to inevitability. Math is not open ended. Again it is similar to a flow chart like computers. Math cannot go outside the basic principles of math. The human mind can because it is not bound by anything, which is what free will is.
El Cid said:
No, there is evidence that numbers exist without being instantiated.
What evidence is that?
Is that evidence sufficient to draw your conclusion?
What do you mean by "exist?"
We know that somewhere there are two rocks under a tree with the quality of twoness irrespective of the human mind or human belief.
El Cid said:
Mimicking Style is not the same as inventing the actual original compositions.
The vast majority of original compositions are within an already established style.

El Cid said:
The computer just randomly picked notes that fit with the style. I have a hunch a real music expert could tell the difference between a computer generated Bach with an actual Bach.
Your hunches aren't enough to draw conclusions from. Here is a Bach chorale written by a computer that is indistinguishable from actual Bach chorales. I studied Bach chorales in college, I have a Ph.D. in music theory and composition, and I'm telling you that chorale is indistinguishable from an actual Bach chorale.

How many human musical compositions are begun, do you think, but someone just sitting at a piano or with a guitar and randomly picking out some notes? I'm here to tell you, a lot!
I guess music was a bad example. I have heard that music especially complex music is similar to math, so it has the same problems that math does as I demonstrated above. The other arts are more open ended and therefore can produce more original works, thereby demonstrating free will.
El Cid said:
Culture would not exist without free will, this can be seen by studying animals, no animal can produce culture, because they dont have free will.
How do you know the difference between animals and humans, in terms of culture, is because of free will and not some other factor (like size of the brain, for instance)?
Because culture requires making choices, animals cannot make choices.
That article basically just says that because animals can mimic and learn behavior that they have culture. While those things are part of culture, is far more than that. Humans can reject aspects of their culture, but animals cant do that. Also read the section of your own article about some of the problems in the Controversies and Criticisms section.
El Cid said:
Without a free will people would be controlled by biology like animals, so genes would have a much stronger influence on your behavior, but we dont see that in humans because we do have free will.
1. Stronger than what?
The human will.
2. It's not logically inconsistent that human behavior, in the absence of free will, is determined by a mixture and interplay of genes and the environment
.
Actually most biologists believe that genetic influence is much greater than environmental influence. And yet we can overcome many of our genetic influences unlike animals.
 
Because as I stated chemicals operate according to the laws of chemistry or physics (this has been empirically observed for at least 500 years, minds operate according to the laws of logic.
What do you mean, minds operate according to the laws of logic?

Chemicals also operate according to logic, and minds all too often don't think according to logic. There is no causal connection between logic and a mind's operation.

I don't know what you're trying to say.
 
Because as I stated chemicals operate according to the laws of chemistry or physics (this has been empirically observed for at least 500 years, minds operate according to the laws of logic.
A computer is nothing more than chemicals and electricity, like a brain is, but it can operate according to laws other than chemistry or physics, like the laws of mathematics. However, we need to distinguish between two different levels (for lack of a better word) of laws that are operating. Computers operate according to electrical and chemical laws, like brains do, but they can instantiate or represent mathematical laws when they are arranged in certain ways, just like brains can, too.

Yes, but math is bound to inevitability. Math is not open ended. Again it is similar to a flow chart like computers. Math cannot go outside the basic principles of math. The human mind can because it is not bound by anything, which is what free will is.
Of course our minds are bound by certain things. Our minds can't grasp huge numbers, or the enormity of the universe, nor 4 or more spatial dimensions, for example.

We know that somewhere there are two rocks under a tree with the quality of twoness irrespective of the human mind or human belief.
When you say "we know," that means that two-ness is instantiated in a mind.

Also, two rocks is not necessarily twoness, it works fine just being rocks.

I guess music was a bad example. I have heard that music especially complex music is similar to math, so it has the same problems that math does as I demonstrated above. The other arts are more open ended and therefore can produce more original works, thereby demonstrating free will.
Exactly how are other arts more open-ended than music? Are you aware of the incredible variety of music throughout the ages and throughout the world? Heck, even within a single genre - jazz - there is an amazing panoply of every different, creative music.

Because culture requires making choices, animals cannot make choices.
Not only are you not being specific enough in your wording, because animals clearly make choices in one sense of the phrase "make choices," but you've just asserted this (again?) without evidence.

That article basically just says that because animals can mimic and learn behavior that they have culture.
That's all that's needed.

While those things are part of culture, is far more than that. Humans can reject aspects of their culture, but animals cant do that.
Do you have evidence for this assertion about animals? Look, it's clear that you have some ideas about animals, humans, free will, etc., that you haven't examined beyond your intuitions. That's why you're making these assertions that I easily show you are wrong (animals have no culture).

Also read the section of your own article about some of the problems in the Controversies and Criticisms section.
Which issue in that do you think is relevant here?

The human will.
Here's another case of an intuition you have - or a position you must take if your larger position is true - that falls apart on a moment's examination. It's not a matter of free will that I am a heterosexual; I didn't decide that, it's just how I'm put together, by my genes (the Y chromosome, to be precise). That's what makes me sexually attracted to women, largely if not completely. I can't will myself to be attracted to men. There's a case of genetics overwhelming free will in an absolutely crucial and central part of an organism (sexual 8ii0I)OJ= reproduction).

Actually most biologists believe that genetic influence is much greater than environmental influence. And yet we can overcome many of our genetic influences unlike animals.
1. Do you have evidence that animals cannot overcome any genetic influences?

2. Biologists will say that the vast majority of behaviors are a mixture of genetic and environmental influences, and those mixtures happen in different ways and at different developmental times.
 
Policing yourself and your colleagues. That IS how science polices itself though.
You are changing your story. You originally said that policing was done individually, not through a group or institution like science. This all started here:
No, this whole discussion was about the institution of academic science, I was not referring to just individuals policing themselves, that would be absurd. You appear to have misunderstood me.
El Cid said:
Nevertheless it is evidence. I wouldn't lie about it.
Gus Bovona said:
This would make any rational person doubt how good of a scientist you are if you think evidence should be accepted because someone says they wouldn’t lie about it.
So the honor system was about an individual not lying, and now you're making out the honor system to be more than an individual, now it's the entire institution of science. Which is it?
See above.
El Cid said:
Exactly, policing yourselves IS the honor system. Again there are no science police.
The honor system, which you claimed science works on, means that no one polices anyone else, the only policing is done by the individual. That is not how science works.
Not the honor system I was referring to, I was referring to a group honor system.
El Cid said:
In what way is it woeful?
Thinking that there are no police in science.
There are not, as I stated it is a group honor system.
El Cid said:
Many great scientific discoveries were made on hunches and intuition.
Hunches or intuition are not scientific evidence. If a hunch or intuition turns out to be true, it's only coincidental, because hunches an intuition are not evidence. They have no probative value. You still have to go get the evidence. This is another way your understanding of science is woeful.
Many people including scientists believe that intuition can be a type of evidence. From Wikipedia: In more recent psychology, intuition can encompass the ability to know valid solutions to problems and decision making. For example, the recognition-primed decision (RPD) model explains how people can make relatively fast decisions without having to compare options. Gary Klein found that under time pressure, high stakes, and changing parameters, experts used their base of experience to identify similar situations and intuitively choose feasible solutions. Thus, the RPD model is a blend of intuition and analysis. The intuition is the pattern-matching process that quickly suggests feasible courses of action. The analysis is the mental simulation, a conscious and deliberate review of the courses of action.[11]
 
No, this whole discussion was about the institution of academic science, I was not referring to just individuals policing themselves, that would be absurd. You appear to have misunderstood me.

See above.

Not the honor system I was referring to, I was referring to a group honor system.
You said *you* as an individual, without any reference to some supposed group honor system, wouldn't lie about your claim. That is not a group honor system (whatever that is), that is an honor system that relies on the individual, no group is needed. If you want me to show you again where you said that, I'm happy to. And don't switch the issue, either. That is exactly where this started.

There are not, as I stated it is a group honor system.
This is incoherent. There's no police, there's a group honor system, and individuals wouldn't lie, and that's how science works?!

Many people including scientists believe that intuition can be a type of evidence. From Wikipedia: In more recent psychology, intuition can encompass the ability to know valid solutions to problems and decision making.
There's nothing about the validity of intuition in that link. The word "intuition" only appears once, and it is not validated as a means of distinguishing what is true from what is not.

For example, the recognition-primed decision (RPD) model explains how people can make relatively fast decisions without having to compare options.
There's nothing in that like that validates intuition as a means of distinguishing what is true from what is not.

Gary Klein found that under time pressure, high stakes, and changing parameters, experts used their base of experience to identify similar situations and intuitively choose feasible solutions. Thus, the RPD model is a blend of intuition and analysis. The intuition is the pattern-matching process that quickly suggests feasible courses of action. The analysis is the mental simulation, a conscious and deliberate review of the courses of action.[11]
But it's not the intuition of experts that is the thing that distinguishes what is true from what is not, it's the prior non-intuitive work that experts do and which they then internalize and call upon through intuition.
 
No, you missed my point. In both cases neither one was seen empirically being created, so how do experts tell the difference between a rock shaped like a spearhead and an actual spearhead?
Though you don't know it, this is why the argument that the universe was intelligently designed, fails: contrast with nature.

When we seek to prove design, we make a constrast with nature - as you did here. But you assert that nature itself was designed... so, what are you using as the point of contrast?
Some things are created by natural law, this is recognized by being able to empirically observe the laws in action. Things created by law are relatively simple and show no evidence of direct design.
There's isn't one. And that's the problem - you would need to contrast our purportedly-designed universe with a known-undesigned one.
God creates two ways. He created natural laws that create relatively simple things like stars and galaxies. For things with specified complexity that cannot be created by natural law, He intervenes with direct design like living things and humans.
You can't know what a spearhead looks like unless you also known what a non-spearhead looks like, and you can't know what a designed universe looks like unless you also know what a non-designed universe looks like.
Archaeologists make the determination between a rock that looks like a spearhead (produced by natural law) and an actual spearhead (created by a designer) everyday. So we can also detect design of the universe in the same way. One way is purposes. We can see how the spearhead shows signs of having a purpose imputed on it unlike a spear shaped rock. So also the universe contains purposes as well.
 
Well obviously things that have occurred in the deep past cannot be empirically observed. So there are certain assumptions that have to be made. You have to assume that the conditions that we see in the present were still working in the deep past in order to make a rational extrapolation backwards into the past. But obviously that is not always the case.
As to conditions in the past working the same as we observe them now, the fine tuning argument for God states that if the fundamental forces such as gravity were different by even a small amount, then life would not have been able to develop and persist, and the universe would not exist as we see it today. It's these fundamental forces that dictate how things work. Everyone agrees with the premise, but disagree as to why. So we have good reasons to think the universe in the past had the same strength of laws therefore behaviour as we have today.
Yes, but those laws are well known and have been empirically proven through experimentation and real time observation. But No law has ever been discovered that can change one kind of animal into another.
El Cid said:
The theory of evolution is a good example of the above situation.
As to looking back into the past, there are again very good reasons as to why we can do this. Every time you look at a star you are looking back into the past. In the case of the nearest, the sun, we are looking eight minutes into the past, in the case of the furthest observable stars, that's looking back 12.9 billion years ago. Spectroscopy can tell us about the elements within a star …
Yes, but you cant do that with historical events on the earth.
From spectral astronomers can determine not only the element, but the temperature and density of that element in the star. The spectral line also can tell us about any magnetic of the star. The width of the line can tell us how fast the material is moving. We can learn about winds in stars from this. If the lines shift back and forth we can learn that the star may be orbiting another star. We can estimate the mass and size of the star from this. If the lines grow and fade in strength we can learn about the physical changes in the star. Spectral information can also tell us about material around stars. This material may be falling onto the star from a doughnut-shaped disk around the star called an accretion disk. These disks often form around a neutron star or black hole. The light from the stuff between the stars allows astronomers to study the interstellar medium. This tells us what type of stuff fills the space between the stars. Space is not empty! There is lots of gas and dust between the stars. Spectroscopy is one of the fundamental tools which scientists use to study the Universe.

Found here. So yes, we can look back into the past and glean information.

We do the same sort of thing with evolution. The following is a list of things that give us information about species from the past and therefore evolution …

Anatomy, molecular biology (DNA), biogeography, fossils, embryology, carbon dating etc etc, the list just goes on and on and the information from all of these diverse areas of study all point to the same conclusion, that evolution is real.
No, those are all extrapolations into the past, none have been empirically observed except carbon decay, which I dont have a problem with.
El Cid said:
I was referring to theoretical science. In theoretical science most scientists think they should remain open to other possible conclusions. The earth orbiting the sun is empirical science.
There is no direct observation of the Earth orbiting the Sun. It had to be figured out theoretically from amongst other things, indirect observation.
Space travel has allowed us to directly observe the earth orbiting the sun.
El Cid said:
No, you missed my point. In both cases neither one was seen empirically being created, so how do experts tell the difference between a rock shaped like a spearhead and an actual spearhead?
Rocks fashioned like spearheads don't occur in nature. What is your point?
Rocks that look like spearheads have been found. Archaeologists can differentiate real spearheads from rocks that just look like spearheads without observing their creation everyday. How do you think they do that?
 
No, I have provided evidence by pointing to other beings that we know dont have free will, animals. Animals do not have a culture or love.
1. I've already given you a link showing that animals *do* have culture; certainly not as advanced as ours, but it is still culture.
See post 751 where I respond to your article.
2. But you're mixing up which claims I'm saying you haven't provided evidence for. I'm talking about this claim:

El Cid said:
Without a free will culture and upbringing are irrelevant. You would not have a culture, and as far as upbringing, your parents would just be making sure you were fed and learned how to obtain food, everything else would not exist.
Please explain how animals might be evidence of your claims above.
Because those are the only things animals do with their young.
El Cid said:
Love involves conscious self sacrifice, animals cannot do that.
Do you have any evidence for this claim?
Watch some nature videos of animal parents and their young being attacked by a predator. If the predator starts inflicting serious damage to the parent they abandon their young. Only humans will die for their children.
El Cid said:
Animals cannot contemplate their own death and realize the sacrifice they are making. Only humans can.
1. Do you have any evidence that animals cannot contemplate their own death?
There is no evidence that animals do any preparations for death or even understand the passage of time or old age or the seriousness of injuries.
Also, there is no evidence that animals commit suicide.
2. Even if animals can't contemplate their own death, death isn't the only sacrifice a creature can make. So animals no contemplating their own death does not refute the idea that animals cannot make sacrifices.
Animals will defend their young of course, but that is just instinctual (programmed) and once the risk for death outweighs the gain, then they stop defending their young as I mentioned about the videos.
El Cid said:
Since everything would be programmed there would be no need for sex education, no need to tell people what is the proper food to eat, no need to teach parents how to raise their children and etc. And yet we are the only beings on the planet that have to be taught all those things.
This assumes that all the programming has to be in place from the beginning (when the creature is conceived, or when its born), but on what basis do you make that assumption? Why can't programming be put in place during the creature's lifetime? The brain's plasticity allows for programming to continue.
Because all these things that are basic to survival have to be taught to humans, it is not programmed, if it was then such teaching would not be necessary.
El Cid said:
See above about how unlike animals everything has to be taught to humans, and then they freely choose whether to do those things.
Do you have any evidence for your claim that everything has to be taught to humans?
See above. All the basic skills for humans to survive have to be taught to us. Without a free will all of these things would have been programmed in, like animals.
El Cid said:
If we were born without a free will and programmed by nature as a product of nature like other animals, then none of that would be necessary.
None of what would be necessary?
Yes, see above.
El Cid said:
See above about how we would be programmed to raise our children properly for their survival.
There's problems with the above, so those need to be addressed first. I'm also having a hard time following your point. Perhaps you could just make several declarative statements, as explicitly as you can.
It seems pretty clear to me, Reread my statements above. What is unclear about it?
 
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