theotēs (Colossians 2:9)

The bible makes it quite clear who does what in creation, cf. 1 Cor 8:6,
No. It doesn't.
You can't distinguish God the Father from the Word
This is demonstrably false. It goes back to your faulty assertion that God = The Father. No matter how many times this is pointed out to you, you remain hopelessly ignorant.
because you are a persecuting Sabellian heretic with a grossly immature & puerile theology.
Oh, you poor martyr. It must be awful that you have no answer whatsoever to my "grossly immature & puerile theology."
I dont need you to interpret Alford.
You clearly do.
Of course he is.
He's not. He makes his determination on the grounds of theology and context, not grammar. And this goes without mentioning the Cambridge source that confirms what I have said which you conveniently forgot about after I explained it to you as well. I guess that one seemed too difficult for you to try to twist into falsehood like you are trying to do with Alford's remarks.
You are deliberately perverting what Alford says. He says "in him."
I didn't twist anything Alford said. I am explaining to you how you have misunderstood him. He isn't making the claims that you say he is making. That should be clear to you.
You are lying at this point.
Where to start? There is the fact that you didn't provide a link to your source. Then there is the fact that it doesn't say what you claim it says:
Stong's said:
of the instrument or means by or with which anything is accomplished, owing to the influence of the Hebrew preposition בְּ much more common in the sacred writers than in secular authors. (cf. Winers Grammar, § 48, a. 3 d.; Buttmann, 181 (157) and 329 (283f), where we say with, by means of, by (through);
α. in phrases in which the primitive force of the preposition is discernible, as ἐν πυρί κατακαίειν, Revelation 17:16 (T omits; WH brackets ἐν); ἐν ἅλατι ἁλίζειν or ἀρτύειν, Matthew 5:13; Mark 9:50; Luke 14:34; ἐν τῷ αἵματι λευκάνειν, Revelation 7:14; ἐν αἵματι καθαρίζειν, Hebrews 9:22; ἐν ὕδατι βαπτίζειν, Matthew 3:11, etc. (see βαπτίζω, II. b. bb.).
β. with the dative, where the simple dative of the instrument might have been used, especially in the Revelation: ἐν μάχαιρα, ἐν ῤομφαία ἀποκτείνειν, Revelation 6:8; Revelation 13:10; πατάσσειν, Luke 22:49; ἀπολλυσθαι, Matthew 26:52; καταπατεῖν ἐν τοῖς ποσίν, Matthew 7:6; ἐν βραχίονι αὐτοῦ, Luke 1:51; ἐν δακτύλῳ Θεοῦ, Luke 11:20, and in other examples; of things relating to the soul, as ἐν ἁγιασμῷ, 2 Thessalonians 2:13 (Winer's Grammar, 417 (388)); 1 Peter 1:2; ἐν τῇ παρακλήσει, 2 Corinthians 7:7; ἐν προσευχή, Matthew 17:21 (T WH omit; Tr brackets the verse); εὐλογεῖν ἐν εὐλογία, Ephesians 1:3; δικαιοῦσθαι ἐν τῷ αἵματι, Romans 5:9.
γ. more rarely with the dative of person, meaning aided by one, by the intervention or agency of someone, by (means of) one (cf. Winers Grammar, 389 (364); Buttmann, 329f (283f)): ἐν τῷ ἄρχοντι τῶν δαιμονίων, Matthew 9:34; ἐν ἑτερογλώσσοις, 1 Corinthians 14:21; κρίνειν τήν οἰκουμένην ἐν ἀνδρί, Acts 17:31; ἐν ὑμῖν κρίνεται ὁ κόσμος (preceded by οἱ ἅγιοι τόν κόσμον κρινοῦσιν), 1 Corinthians 6:2; ἐργάζεσθαι ἐν τίνι, Sir. 13:4 Sir. 30:13, 34.
Notice here that neither β nor γ require accompaniment as you suggested and both are valid grammatical explanations for the structure of Col. 1:16. You lied about and/or misread your source.

I wasn't quoting Alford but Striongs. So now you disagree with Striongs.
I knew you were misquoting Strong's. That's what I said. Strong's gives the grammatical possibilities for the verse, but I disagree with the one they think is correct. I tend to think the verse is topic/restatement rather than two differently nuanced claims. The thing I find strange about your insistence on Alford's understanding is that his places an even greater emphasis on Christ's role than mine does!
I proved my claim. Now who's the liar?
You are just grossly incompentent when in comes to Koine Greek, and reject Strongs for your classical interpretation. I believe you are so steeped in Greek pagan theology that you will NEVER understand the bible.
After the beating you just took, I'll just let this part pass.
 
No. It doesn't.
Just shows you're unable to interpret the bible where others have come to a unanimous conclusion:

Expositor's Greek NT: "In Him τὰ πάντα were created. From this it follows that the Son cannot be a creature, for creation is exhausted by the “all things” which were so created in Him (“omnem excludit creaturam,” Bengel). ἐν αὐτῷ : this does not mean “by Him”........The Son is the Agent in creation ( cf. 1 Corinthians 8:6 ); this definitely states the pre-existence of the Son and assumes the supremacy of the Father, whose Agent the Son is. εἰς αὐτὸν . That the Son is the goal of creation is an advance on Paul’s previous teaching, which had been that the goal of the universe is God (Romans 11:36 ; cf. 1 Corinthians 8:6 , ἡμεῖς εἰς αὐτόν )."


Net bible: "for all things in heaven and on earth were created in him—"

This is demonstrably false. It goes back to your faulty assertion that God = The Father. No matter how many times this is pointed out to you, you remain hopelessly ignorant.
You teach a fabricated theology. God is the Father, as a matter of personal definition. Christ is the "power & wisdom of God", 1 Corinthians 1:24

Oh, you poor martyr. It must be awful that you have no answer whatsoever to my "grossly immature & puerile theology."
See above.

You clearly do.

He's not. He makes his determination on the grounds of theology and context, not grammar. And this goes without mentioning the Cambridge source that confirms what I have said which you conveniently forgot about after I explained it to you as well. I guess that one seemed too difficult for you to try to twist into falsehood like you are trying to do with Alford's remarks.
Cambridge says "Literally. and far better, in Him. “The act of creation is supposed to rest in Him, and to depend on Him for its completion and realization” (Ellicott). In other words, the mighty fact that all things were created was bound up with Him, as its Secret. The creation of things was in Him, as the effect is in its cause.

Meyer:
"Colossians 1:16. For in Him were all things created,—the logically correct confirmation of πρωτότοκος πάσ. κτίσεως. For if the creation of all things took place in Christ, it is evident that He must stand before the series of created things, and be πρωτότοκος πάσης κτίσεως.

"ἐν αὐτῷ] is not equivalent to διʼ αὐτοῦ (Chrysostom, Oecumenius, Theophylact, Erasmus, Beza, Bleek, and many others), but: on Christ depended (causally) the act of creation, so that the latter was not done independently of Him—in a causal connection apart from Him—but it had in Him the ground essentially conditioning it. In Him lay, in fact, the potency of life, from which God made the work of creation proceed, inasmuch as He was the personal principle of the divine self-revelation, and therewith the accomplisher of the divine idea of the world. A well-known classical usage to denote the dependence of a state of things, the causality of which is contained in any one. See Bernhardy, p. 210; Kühner, II. 1, p. 403 f.; from the N. T., Winer, p. 364 [E. T. 521]. Not as if the “causa principalis” of the creation lay in Christ, but the organic causality of the world’s becoming created was in Him; hence the following διʼ αὐτοῦ affirms not a different state of things, but the same thing under a varied form of conception and designation, by which it is brought out in greater definiteness. The primary ground of creation is ever God, Romans 11:36; 1 Corinthians 8:6; Hebrews 11:3. ............ Huther finds the inward connection indicated by ἐν αὐτῷ in the idea, that the eternal essence of the universe is the divine essence itself, which in Christ became man. This idea in itself has no biblical ground; and Paul is speaking here, not of the existence and essence of the universe in Christ, but of the becoming created, which took place in Christ (ἐν αὐτῷ ζωὴ ἦν, John 1:4), consequently of a divine act depending on Christ; comp. John 1:3 : χωρὶς αὐτοῦ ἐγένετο οὐδὲ ἓν ὃ γέγονεν; Hebrews 1:2; and Bleek in loc. Lastly, de Wette finds in ἐν besides the instrumental agency at the same time something of a telic idea (comp. also Ewald and Weiss, Bibl. Theol. p. 424 f.); but this blending together of two heterogeneous references is not justified by the διʼ αὐτοῦ καὶ εἰς αὐτόν that follows."


I didn't twist anything Alford said. I am explaining to you how you have misunderstood him. He isn't making the claims that you say he is making. That should be clear to you.
Nobody allows "by him" in this grammatical context.


Where to start? There is the fact that you didn't provide a link to your source. Then there is the fact that it doesn't say what you claim it says:

Notice here that neither β nor γ require accompaniment as you suggested and both are valid grammatical explanations for the structure of Col. 1:16. You lied about and/or misread your source.


I knew you were misquoting Strong's. That's what I said. Strong's gives the grammatical possibilities for the verse, but I disagree with the one they think is correct. I tend to think the verse is topic/restatement rather than two differently nuanced claims. The thing I find strange about your insistence on Alford's understanding is that his places an even greater emphasis on Christ's role than mine does!
I did not misquote Strongs: It is clear that "by" is not a primary meaning of ἐν and can only be contextually inferred in the particular context that I suggested.

"c. of that which one either leads or brings with him, or with which he is furnished or equipped; especially after verbs of coming (ἐν of accompaniment), where we often say with: ἐν δέκα χιλιάσιν ὑπανταν, Luke 14:31; ἦλθεν ἐν μυριάσι, Jude 1:14; cf. Grimm on 1 Macc. 1:17; ἐισέρχεσθαι ἐν αἵματι, Hebrews 9:25; ἐν τῷ ὕδατι καί ἐν τῷ αἵματι, 1 John 5:6 (i. e. with the water of baptism and the blood of atonement, by means of both which he has procured the pardon of our sins, of which fact we are assured by the testimony of the Holy Spirit); ἐν ῤάβδῳ, 1 Corinthians 4:21; ἐν πληρώματι εὐλογίας, Romans 15:29; φθάνειν ἐν τῷ εὐαγγελίῳ, 2 Corinthians 10:14; ἐν πνεύματι καί δυνάμει ἥλιον, imbued or furnished with the spirit and power of Elijah, Luke 1:17; ἐν τῇ βασιλεία αὐτοῦ, furnished with the regal power of the Messiah, possessed of his kingly power (Buttmann, 330 (284)): Matthew 16:28; Luke 23:42 (WH text L marginal reading Tr marginal reading εἰς τήν βασιλείαν). Akin is its use d. of the instrument or means by or with which anything is accomplished, owing to the influence of the Hebrew preposition בְּ much more common in the sacred writers than in secular authors. (cf. Winers Grammar, § 48, a. 3 d.; Buttmann, 181 (157) and 329 (283f), where we say with, by means of, by (through); α. in phrases in which the primitive force of the preposition is discernible, as ἐν πυρί κατακαίειν, Revelation 17:16 (T omits; WH brackets ἐν); ἐν ἅλατι ἁλίζειν or ἀρτύειν, Matthew 5:13; Mark 9:50; Luke 14:34; ἐν τῷ αἵματι λευκάνειν, Revelation 7:14; ἐν αἵματι καθαρίζειν, Hebrews 9:22; ἐν ὕδατι βαπτίζειν, Matthew 3:11, etc. (see βαπτίζω, II."

You are outvoted and outclassed. The commentaries unanimously disagree with you.
 
Just shows you're unable to interpret the bible where others have come to a unanimous conclusion:

Expositor's Greek NT: "In Him τὰ πάντα were created. From this it follows that the Son cannot be a creature, for creation is exhausted by the “all things” which were so created in Him (“omnem excludit creaturam,” Bengel). ἐν αὐτῷ : this does not mean “by Him”........The Son is the Agent in creation ( cf. 1 Corinthians 8:6 ); this definitely states the pre-existence of the Son and assumes the supremacy of the Father, whose Agent the Son is. εἰς αὐτὸν . That the Son is the goal of creation is an advance on Paul’s previous teaching, which had been that the goal of the universe is God (Romans 11:36 ; cf. 1 Corinthians 8:6 , ἡμεῖς εἰς αὐτόν )."
Your omission of the very next sentence says all that needs to be said about your character. "ἐν αὐτῷ : this does not mean “by Him”. The sense is disputed."
You teach a fabricated theology. God is the Father, as a matter of personal definition. Christ is the "power & wisdom of God", 1 Corinthians 1:24
I'm correctly gave you a possible rendering of the text.
Literally. and far better, in Him.
Again, better means there are other good options. I'm not addressing any more of these; I don't need to. They are already showing that my statements are correct.
Nobody allows "by him" in this grammatical context.
This is not true. It's the reading of many different translations.
I did not misquote Strongs: It is clear that "by" is not a primary meaning of ἐν and can only be contextually inferred in the particular context that I suggested.
You absolutely misquoted Strong's. There can be no question about it.
"c. of that which one either leads or brings with him, or with which he is furnished or equipped; especially after verbs of coming (ἐν of accompaniment), where we often say with: ἐν δέκα χιλιάσιν ὑπανταν, Luke 14:31; ἦλθεν ἐν μυριάσι, Jude 1:14; cf. Grimm on 1 Macc. 1:17; ἐισέρχεσθαι ἐν αἵματι, Hebrews 9:25; ἐν τῷ ὕδατι καί ἐν τῷ αἵματι, 1 John 5:6 (i. e. with the water of baptism and the blood of atonement, by means of both which he has procured the pardon of our sins, of which fact we are assured by the testimony of the Holy Spirit); ἐν ῤάβδῳ, 1 Corinthians 4:21; ἐν πληρώματι εὐλογίας, Romans 15:29; φθάνειν ἐν τῷ εὐαγγελίῳ, 2 Corinthians 10:14; ἐν πνεύματι καί δυνάμει ἥλιον, imbued or furnished with the spirit and power of Elijah, Luke 1:17; ἐν τῇ βασιλεία αὐτοῦ, furnished with the regal power of the Messiah, possessed of his kingly power (Buttmann, 330 (284)): Matthew 16:28; Luke 23:42 (WH text L marginal reading Tr marginal reading εἰς τήν βασιλείαν). Akin is its use d. of the instrument or means by or with which anything is accomplished, owing to the influence of the Hebrew preposition בְּ much more common in the sacred writers than in secular authors. (cf. Winers Grammar, § 48, a. 3 d.; Buttmann, 181 (157) and 329 (283f), where we say with, by means of, by (through); α. in phrases in which the primitive force of the preposition is discernible, as ἐν πυρί κατακαίειν, Revelation 17:16 (T omits; WH brackets ἐν); ἐν ἅλατι ἁλίζειν or ἀρτύειν, Matthew 5:13; Mark 9:50; Luke 14:34; ἐν τῷ αἵματι λευκάνειν, Revelation 7:14; ἐν αἵματι καθαρίζειν, Hebrews 9:22; ἐν ὕδατι βαπτίζειν, Matthew 3:11, etc. (see βαπτίζω, II."
This is a different type of agency than the one I quoted which actually applies. You truly butcher your sources!
You are outvoted and outclassed. The commentaries unanimously disagree with you.
Rubbish. You aren't able to understand the sources you quote, so you are confused.
 
Your omission of the very next sentence says all that needs to be said about your character. "ἐν αὐτῷ : this does not mean “by Him”. The sense is disputed."
You have not made any valid point. You have merely alluded to me omitting some words, which I given that I had reached the 10000 character post limit, I had to omit to get the post to comply with post limits. As far as I can see the only thing of substance that I omitted was "the act of creation depended causally on the Son" but I can't see how this helps you dispute my point.

Let's see what I omitted:

_________________________

The Expositor's Greek Testament​

Col 1:16

.....The sense [of ἐν αὐτῷ] is disputed.
- The schoolmen, followed by some modern theologians, explain that the Son is the archetype of the universe, the κόσμος νοητός , the eternal pattern after which the physical universe has been created. So Philo held that the Logos was the home wherein the eternal ideas resided. But it is by no means clear that Alexandrian influence can be traced in the Epistle. Further, the notion of creation is not suitable to the origin of the ideal universe in the Son. If the Son was from eternity the archetype of the universe, then ἐκτίσθη ἐν αὐτῷ ought not to have been used, both because the aorist points to a definite time and the idea of creation is itself inapplicable. But that the ideal universe was at some time created in the Son is an highly improbable, if it is even an intelligible, idea. Again, the sense of ἐκτίσθη is controlled by that of κτίσις , which does not refer to the ideal universe. It must therefore refer to the actual creation of the universe.
- If Paul had intended to speak of the realisation in creation of the ideal universe which had in the Son its eternal home he would have said ἐξ αὐτοῦ.
- Others (Mey., Ell., Moule) take ἐν αὐτῷ to mean simply that the act of creation depended causally on the Son. This is perhaps the safest explanation, for Haupt’s interpretation that apart from His Person there would have been no creation, but with His Person creation was a necessity in other words, that creation was “given” in Christ seems with the aorist and the choice of the word ἐκτίσθη to be inconsistent with the eternal existence of the Son.

τὰ πάντα , i.e. , the universe in its widest sense regarded as a collective whole. ἐν τ . οὐρανοῖς κ . ἐπὶ τ . γῆς . As Lightfoot points out, “a classification by locality,” while τὰ ὁρατὰ κ . τ . ἀόρατα is a “classification by essence”. The two do not precisely correspond, for the divisions cross each other to some extent, though some confine the things in heaven to the world of spirits, and the things on earth to the world of men, in which case they would correspond to things invisible and things visible. Against this see above on π . κτίσεως . εἴτε θρόνοι κ . τ . λ . This is not an exhaustive definition of τὰ πάντα , for Paul selects for mention those creatures to whom worship was paid by the false teachers. The names, as in similar lists, denote angels and not earthly powers. For some of them occur in Jewish angelology, and a reference to earthly dignities would be irrelevant to the polemical purpose of the passage. These angels, Paul insists, so far from being superior or equal to Christ, were as inferior to Him as the creature is to the Creator. They owed their very existence to Him, and could not therefore be allowed for one moment to usurp His place. Lightfoot thinks that Paul is expressing no opinion as to their objective existence, but is simply repeating subjective opinions; and that both here and in Colossians 2:18 he shows a “spirit of impatience with this elaborate angelology”. But in face of the detailed proof that he accepted the doctrine of various orders of angels (given most fully by Everling), this cannot be maintained, nor is there any polemical reference in Ephesians 1:21 . It may be questioned whether any inference can be drawn as to the order of the ranks of angels. The order in the parallel list, Ephesians 1:21 , is ἀρχή , ἐξουσία , δύναμις , κυριότης , on which Godet remarks that in Col. the question is of creation by Christ from whom all proceed, hence the enumeration descends; but in Eph. of the ascension of the risen Christ above all orders, hence the enumeration ascends. But it must be urged against this not merely that only three out of the four titles coincide, but that the order is not fully inverted. Possibly Paul employs here the order of the false teachers (so Kl [8] ). The order apparently descends, but it is questionable if this is intentional, for if the highest orders were inferior to Christ, a fortiori the lower would be. θρόνοι : taken by some to be the angels of the throne, that is angels who, like the cherubim, bear the throne of God. But it is more probable that they are those seated on thrones ( cf. Revelation 4:4 ). On these orders, cf. the Slavonic Enoch , xx. 1. In the seventh heaven Enoch saw “a very great light and all the fiery hosts of great archangels, and incorporeal powers and lordships and principalities and powers ; cherubim and seraphim, thrones and the watchfulness of many eyes”. Also Enoch , lxi. 10, “and all the angels of powers and all the angels of principalities ”. Test. , xii., Patr. Levi. , 3, ἐν δὲ τῷ μετʼ αὐτόν εἰσι θρόνοι , ἐξουσίαι , ἐν ᾧ ὕμνοι ἀεὶ τῷ Θεῷ προσφέρονται . κυριότητες : apparently inferior to θρόνοι . ἀρχαὶ … ἐξουσίαι usually occur together and in this order. τὰπάντα … συνέστηκεν : thrown in as a parenthesis.

_________________________

Oh yes, I forgot to include the Greek διʼ αὐτοῦ (from Col 1:16) before

"The Son is the Agent in creation ( cf. 1 Corinthians 8:6 ); this definitely states the pre-existence of the Son and assumes the supremacy of the Father, whose Agent the Son is. εἰς αὐτὸν . That the Son is the goal of creation is an advance on Paul’s previous teaching, which had been that the goal of the universe is God (Romans 11:36 ; cf. 1 Corinthians 8:6 , ἡμεῖς εἰς αὐτόν )."

Can't see how this help you.

More later.......
 
Your omission of the very next sentence says all that needs to be said about your character. "ἐν αὐτῷ : this does not mean “by Him”. The sense is disputed."

I'm correctly gave you a possible rendering of the text.

Again, better means there are other good options. I'm not addressing any more of these; I don't need to. They are already showing that my statements are correct.
???

This is not true. It's the reading of many different translations.
I agree that the KJV "by him" rendition led to a host of subsequent revisionist ..SVs with the "by him" rendition. But the RSV & ASV are excepted, as is the Douray Rheims (the RSV is a very important SV revision as prepared to break with tradition where others are not).

Also perhaps the most important modern translation in recent years, the Nova Vulgata: "quia in ipso condita sunt universa in caelis et in terra, visibilia et invisibilia, sive throni sive dominationes sive principatus sive potestates. Omnia per ipsum et in ipsum creata sunt"


You absolutely misquoted Strong's. There can be no question about it. This is a different type of agency than the one I quoted which actually applies. You truly butcher your sources!
I précised Strongs, but so what? You haven't shown where I am in error, now that I gave you the full text of Strongs:

NB: "of the instrument or means by or with which anything is accomplished .... where we say with, by means of, by (through)"


Rubbish. You aren't able to understand the sources you quote, so you are confused.
In other words, you don't understand the sources and you are confused.
 
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You have not made any valid point. You have merely alluded to me omitting some words, which I given that I had reached the 10000 character post limit, I had to omit to get the post to comply with post limits. As far as I can see the only thing of substance that I omitted was "the act of creation depended causally on the Son" but I can't see how this helps you dispute my point.

Let's see what I omitted:


Can't see how this help you.

More later.......
You omitted the fact that the author notes that the sense of the phrase is disputed. He is giving his opinion and what he thinks is correct. However, he notes that the sense is disputed. This was not an edit you made due to character limits. You did it because you don't like what it says.
 
I was referring to your earlier quote:
Cambridge says "Literally. and far better, in Him. “The act of creation is supposed to rest in Him, and to depend on Him for its completion and realization” (Ellicott). In other words, the mighty fact that all things were created was bound up with Him, as its Secret. The creation of things was in Him, as the effect is in its cause.
Where I noted that "far better" implies that the other option is still good.
I précised Strongs, but so what? You haven't shown where I am in error, now that I gave you the full text of Strongs:

NB: "of the instrument or means by or with which anything is accomplished .... where we say with, by means of, by (through)"
I clearly explained how you misquoted Strong's. The explanation you gave doesn't match what Strong's actually says about the verse:
c. of that in which other things are contained and upheld, as their cause and origin: ἐν αὐτῷ (i. e., in God) ζῶμεν κτλ. in God is found the cause why we live, Acts 17:28; ἐν αὐτῷ (in Christ, as the divine hypostatic λόγος) ἐκτίσθη τά πάντα, in him resides the cause why all things were originally created, Colossians 1:16 (the cause both instrumental and final as well, for ἐν αὐτῷ is immediately afterward resolved into δἰ αὐτοῦ καί εἰς αὐτόν (cf. Winers Grammar, § 50, 6 and Lightfoot at the passage));
This is pretty much the exact thing that I pointed out from Alford's remarks:
Alford is not commenting on the grammar he is commenting on the meaning. The initial portion of verse 16 gives the overview of the point that the author is making and the remainder of the verse (but perhaps not only the rest of the verse) fleshes out the idea. What Alford is saying is that “by him” isn’t all encompassing enough to capture the thought, which is actually worse for your position since Alford ultimately acknowledges Jesus as the agent in the verse.

In other words, you don't understand the sources and you are confused.
You wish.
 
Carry on talking into the air.
Interesting how “John Milton” refuses to tell us simple things like —

(a) Whether Jesus was God while he was on earth. He seems to hold on to some sort of “Kenosis heresy,” from what I have gathered.

(b) Whether his god is three “persons” or else three “modes.”

(c) What Greek word for “person” does he use when he says stuff like “the person of Jesus” or “the person of the Farher.” He is a man of mystery ?, though “confusion” is probably a more apt word on this score.
 
You omitted the fact that the author notes that the sense of the phrase is disputed. He is giving his opinion and what he thinks is correct. However, he notes that the sense is disputed.
Obviously the sense is disputed, given that what I have been laboring to show is that modern commentaries and translations disagree with the KJV and many of its "SV" successors. Disputation is conceded implicitly also by Alford and by every commentator. Disputation has never been in any doubt because of the KJV. Therefore you attempt to portray me as concealing disputation is frivolous. (In any case I gave all the WWW references to the sources I was quoting so an intention of concealment cannot be made out.) My intention was to simply convey the unexpurgated opinions of the Expositor's Greek New Testament.

This was not an edit you made due to character limits. You did it because you don't like what it says.
Doing a reply and character counting in Word shows my original post comprised circa 7737 characters. The section of the commentary that I omitted comprised circa 4902 characters. Thus again you make an entirely false and unjustified aspersion based in the vanity of your imagination.
 
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I was referring to your earlier quote:

Where I noted that "far better" implies that the other option is still good.
No such implication is made.

I clearly explained how you misquoted Strong's. The explanation you gave doesn't match what Strong's actually says about the verse:
That's because I wasn't intending to allude to what Strongs says about Col 1:16 directly, but about what Strongs says about the appropriateness of translating ἐν as "by/with," which is grammatically restricted and contextually circumscribed, exactly as Strongs says.

c. of that in which other things are contained and upheld, as their cause and origin: ἐν αὐτῷ (i. e., in God) ζῶμεν κτλ. in God is found the cause why we live, Acts 17:28; ἐν αὐτῷ (in Christ, as the divine hypostatic λόγος) ἐκτίσθη τά πάντα, in him resides the cause why all things were originally created, Colossians 1:16 (the cause both instrumental and final as well, for ἐν αὐτῷ is immediately afterward resolved into δἰ αὐτοῦ καί εἰς αὐτόν (cf. Winers Grammar, § 50, 6 and Lightfoot at the passage));

This is pretty much the exact thing that I pointed out from Alford's remarks:

Alford is not commenting on the grammar he is commenting on the meaning. The initial portion of verse 16 gives the overview of the point that the author is making and the remainder of the verse (but perhaps not only the rest of the verse) fleshes out the idea. What Alford is saying is that “by him” isn’t all encompassing enough to capture the thought, which is actually worse for your position since Alford ultimately acknowledges Jesus as the agent in the verse.
I can't see that you quoting Strongs directly on Col 1:16 helps your cause, as Strongs follows Winer, who is followed by Alford et al. (supra), and this is what Winer has to say at p.531 section §50:6 (Repitition of Prepositions):

"It is an especial peculiarity of Paul's style to use different
prepositions in reference to one noun, that by means of these
prepositions collectively the idea may be defined on every side.
.
.
.
Col. i. 16, εν αύτω (Χριστώ) εκτίσθη τά πάντα . . . . τά πάντα
δι αύτού καϊ εις αύτον εκτισται: i.e., the universe stands in a
necessary and all-sided relation to Christ. First, of the past
(by the aorist) : in him was the world created,
inasmuch as he,
the Divine λόγος, was the personal ground of the Divine creative
act (just as " in Christ" God redeemed the world). Then of the
existing world (the perfect): all is created through him, as the
personal medium, and to (for) him,
as κύριος πάντων in the
most comprehensive sense."
 
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Interesting how “John Milton” refuses to tell us simple things like —

(a) Whether Jesus was God while he was on earth. He seems to hold on to some sort of “Kenosis heresy,” from what I have gathered.
For John Milton, Jesus is always God, in heaven or on earth. In this state of affairs, kenosis is seen as precluded, as doctrinally impossible where "God does not change."

(b) Whether his god is three “persons” or else three “modes.”
I have reached the conclusion that High Trinitarians are unwilling to rationalize this matter. They imagine that just because they insist that "The Father, Son and Holy Spirit" are unique "persons" then they cannot be modes of God. Logically there is nothing to stop them being both persons and modes of God, especially if divine economy is their only distinguishing feature, and I am thinking (guessing) that this was the original Sabellian proposition. I am currently investigating this.

I suppose they would say, 3 x hypostases avoids 3 x modes, but this is a circular argument as they cannot say what makes the hypostases different where they are "co-equal." It may be that they are simply positing an (unprovable and so delusory) philosophical proposition as an escape clause from Sabellianism.

(c) What Greek word for “person” does he use when he says stuff like “the person of Jesus” or “the person of the Farher.” He is a man of mystery ?, though “confusion” is probably a more apt word on this score.
Prosopon and hypostasis are the only allowable words (cf. Heb 1:3, Numbers 6:25-26, 2 Corinthians 4:6 &etc).
 
Obviously the sense is disputed, given that what I have been laboring to show is that modern commentaries and translations disagree with the KJV and many of its "SV" successors. Disputation is conceded implicitly also by Alford and by every commentator. Disputation has never been in any doubt because of the KJV. Therefore you attempt to portray me as concealing disputation is frivolous.
You have effectively claimed that "by him" isn't a valid translation. That's simply not the case.
(In any case I gave all the WWW references to the sources I was quoting so an intention of concealment cannot be made out.) My intention was to simply convey the unexpurgated opinions of the Expositor's Greek New Testament.
Doing a reply and character counting in Word shows my original post comprised circa 7737 characters. The section of the commentary that I omitted comprised circa 4902 characters. Thus again you make an entirely false and unjustified aspersion based in the vanity of your imagination.
You intentionally left off the next sentence, because you didn't like what it did to your argument. You can try to hide behind word counts, but we both know that had nothing to do with it.
 
No such implication is made.
"Better" means the other translation is still acceptable, good even.
That's because I wasn't intending to allude to what Strongs says about Col 1:16 directly, but about what Strongs says about the appropriateness of translating ἐν as "by/with," which is grammatically restricted and contextually circumscribed, exactly as Strongs says.
Strong's says that it can be translated with "by/with". Your remarks here are wrong.
When ἐν = "the instrument or means by or with which (or through which) anything is accomplished," it is contextually limited to verbs of accompaniment, as distinguished from "that in which other things are contained and upheld, as their cause and origin." (Strongs)
The truth:
c. of that which one either leads or brings with him, or with which he is furnished or equipped; especially after verbs of coming (ἐν of accompaniment), where we often say with: ἐν δέκα χιλιάσιν ὑπανταν, Luke 14:31; ἦλθεν ἐν μυριάσι, Jude 1:14; cf. Grimm on 1 Macc. 1:17; ἐισέρχεσθαι ἐν αἵματι, Hebrews 9:25; ἐν τῷ ὕδατι καί ἐν τῷ αἵματι, 1 John 5:6 (i. e. with the water of baptism and the blood of atonement, by means of both which he has procured the pardon of our sins, of which fact we are assured by the testimony of the Holy Spirit); ἐν ῤάβδῳ, 1 Corinthians 4:21; ἐν πληρώματι εὐλογίας, Romans 15:29; φθάνειν ἐν τῷ εὐαγγελίῳ, 2 Corinthians 10:14; ἐν πνεύματι καί δυνάμει ἥλιον, imbued or furnished with the spirit and power of Elijah, Luke 1:17; ἐν τῇ βασιλεία αὐτοῦ, furnished with the regal power of the Messiah, possessed of his kingly power (Buttmann, 330 (284)): Matthew 16:28; Luke 23:42 (WH text L marginal reading Tr marginal reading εἰς τήν βασιλείαν). Akin is its use
d. of the instrument or means by or with which anything is accomplished, owing to the influence of the Hebrew preposition בְּ much more common in the sacred writers than in secular authors. (cf. Winers Grammar, § 48, a. 3 d.; Buttmann, 181 (157) and 329 (283f), where we say with, by means of, by (through);
α. in phrases in which the primitive force of the preposition is discernible, as ἐν πυρί κατακαίειν, Revelation 17:16 (T omits; WH brackets ἐν); ἐν ἅλατι ἁλίζειν or ἀρτύειν, Matthew 5:13; Mark 9:50; Luke 14:34; ἐν τῷ αἵματι λευκάνειν, Revelation 7:14; ἐν αἵματι καθαρίζειν, Hebrews 9:22; ἐν ὕδατι βαπτίζειν, Matthew 3:11, etc. (see βαπτίζω, II. b. bb.).
β. with the dative, where the simple dative of the instrument might have been used, especially in the Revelation: ἐν μάχαιρα, ἐν ῤομφαία ἀποκτείνειν, Revelation 6:8; Revelation 13:10; πατάσσειν, Luke 22:49; ἀπολλυσθαι, Matthew 26:52; καταπατεῖν ἐν τοῖς ποσίν, Matthew 7:6; ἐν βραχίονι αὐτοῦ, Luke 1:51; ἐν δακτύλῳ Θεοῦ, Luke 11:20, and in other examples; of things relating to the soul, as ἐν ἁγιασμῷ, 2 Thessalonians 2:13 (Winer's Grammar, 417 (388)); 1 Peter 1:2; ἐν τῇ παρακλήσει, 2 Corinthians 7:7; ἐν προσευχή, Matthew 17:21 (T WH omit; Tr brackets the verse); εὐλογεῖν ἐν εὐλογία, Ephesians 1:3; δικαιοῦσθαι ἐν τῷ αἵματι, Romans 5:9.
γ. more rarely with the dative of person, meaning aided by one, by the intervention or agency of someone, by (means of) one (cf. Winers Grammar, 389 (364); Buttmann, 329f (283f)): ἐν τῷ ἄρχοντι τῶν δαιμονίων, Matthew 9:34; ἐν ἑτερογλώσσοις, 1 Corinthians 14:21; κρίνειν τήν οἰκουμένην ἐν ἀνδρί, Acts 17:31; ἐν ὑμῖν κρίνεται ὁ κόσμος (preceded by οἱ ἅγιοι τόν κόσμον κρινοῦσιν), 1 Corinthians 6:2; ἐργάζεσθαι ἐν τίνι, Sir. 13:4 Sir. 30:13, 34.
You clearly misrepresented your source.
I can't see that you quoting Strongs directly on Col 1:16 helps your cause, as Strongs follows Winer, who is followed by Alford et al. (supra), and this is what Winer has to say at p.531 section §50:6 (Repitition of Prepositions):

"It is an especial peculiarity of Paul's style to use different
prepositions in reference to one noun, that by means of these
prepositions collectively the idea may be defined on every side.
This does not vary much with my stated position.
I tend to think the verse is topic/restatement rather than two differently nuanced claims. The thing I find strange about your insistence on Alford's understanding is that his places an even greater emphasis on Christ's role than mine does!
Col. i. 16, εν αύτω (Χριστώ) εκτίσθη τά πάντα . . . . τά πάντα
δι αύτού καϊ εις αύτον εκτισται: i.e., the universe stands in a
necessary and all-sided relation to Christ. First, of the past
(by the aorist) : in him was the world created,
inasmuch as he,
the Divine λόγος, was the personal ground of the Divine creative
act (just as " in Christ" God redeemed the world). Then of the
existing world (the perfect): all is created through him, as the
personal medium, and to (for) him,
as κύριος πάντων in the
most comprehensive sense."
My earlier remarks about the dative of agency are relevant here. You can find them if you want to. I've met my quota of quote mining for the moment.
 
For John Milton, Jesus is always God, in heaven or on earth.
His identity as God doesn't change, but his manifestation does. On earth Jesus was 100% human. You have once again misstated my position.
In this state of affairs, kenosis is seen as precluded,
No. My position affirms kenosis.
as doctrinally impossible where "God does not change."
Kenosis is not "doctrinally impossible" on the basis that "God does not change". You are misunderstanding what this means else God could never even change his mind.
I have reached the conclusion that High Trinitarians are unwilling to rationalize this matter. They imagine that just because they insist that "The Father, Son and Holy Spirit" are unique "persons" then they cannot be modes of God. Logically there is nothing to stop them being both persons and modes of God, especially if divine economy is their only distinguishing feature, and I am thinking (guessing) that this was the original Sabellian proposition. I am currently investigating this.
You still don't understand my position, and I've explained it to you repeatedly. I really don't think you should hazard thoughts about others you aren't interacting with.
Prosopon and hypostasis are the only allowable words (cf. Heb 1:3, Numbers 6:25-26, 2 Corinthians 4:6 &etc).
Any words are allowable to describe these situations.
 
His identity as God doesn't change, but his manifestation does. On earth Jesus was 100% human. You have once again misstated my position.
You are basically a Hindu , — you just go by the name “Christ” while they usually go by the name “Krishna” or “Shiva,” etc. Same idol different name.
 
Colossians 2:9
For in Him all the fullness of Deity dwells in bodily form. (NASB)

1. Greek-English Lexicon of the New Testament: Based on Semantic Domains: the nature or state of being God (12.13, theotēs, page 140, J. P. Louw and Eugene Nida).
2. Thayer's Greek-English Lexicon of the New Testament: the state of being God (theotēs, page 288).
3. Exegetical Dictionary of the New Testament (EDNT): the rank of God (2:143, theotēs, G. Schneider).
4. Mounce's Complete Expository Dictionary of Old and New Testament Words: Jesus represents in himself all that the temple was supposed to symbolize, especially since in him all the fullness of Deity lives (cf. Col. 2:9) (Temple, page 714).
5. Vine's Expository Dictionary of Old and New Testament Words: Paul is declaring that in the Son there dwells all the fulness of absolute Godhead; they were no mere rays of Divine glory which gilded Him, lighting up His Person for a season and with a splendour not His own; but He was, and is, absolute and perfect God. (Divinity, pages 320-321).

And then we are to add your imaginations as well, right.

The next verse says believers have this same fullness. See also Ephesians 3:19.

The Father Himself abides in Jesus so of course God's fullness is in Jesus.

But your Bible says the same is true for all the children of God who are born of Him. The Father abides in them so that same fullness of God dwells in them.

Of course you will ignore the facts for the sake of promulgating your false narrative.
 
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