No, they don't.Some Christians properly pray to Mary and the apostles too...
That is improper prayer.
You are very confused.
No, they don't.Some Christians properly pray to Mary and the apostles too...
Of course they do.No, they don't.
To you it is, just as to me you praying to Jesus is improper prayer.That is improper prayer.
No just factual.You are very confused.
Of course they do.
To the Bible it is. God alone fully knows the hearts of all, so God alone is the proper recipient of prayer (1 Kings 8:38-39).To you it is,
just as to me you praying to Jesus is improper prayer.
No just factual.
just like you, they say they do...Of course they don't.
only to you.To the Bible it is.
Therefore God alone is God..God alone fully knows the hearts of all, so God alone is the proper recipient of prayer (1 Kings 8:38-39).
Acts 1;24 does not say, Jesus.Since the Lord Jesus fully knows the hearts of all (Acts 1:24), then He is the proper recipient of prayer (Acts 1:24-25).
Where does it say Jesus?Acts 1:24-25
(24) And they prayed and said, “You, Lord, who know the hearts of all men, show which one of these two You have chosen
(25) to occupy this ministry and apostleship from which Judas turned aside to go to his own place.”
Who will give Jesus the throne of David in the passage?When the appellation "Lord" appears without reading "Lord Jesus" in Acts 1:24 it is important to keep in mind that whenever the following key words from this prayer are found elsewhere in Scripture in association with the "Lord" then the Lord always refers to the Lord Jesus.
The Lord God will give Jesus the throne of David. We only need one instance where Jesus has a Lord.The passages in boldface are from the same author (Luke).
1. The "Lord" occurs along with the same Greek word for "show" (anadeiknymi) in Acts 1:24 - in reference to the Lord Jesus (Luke 10:1).
2. The "Lord" occurs along with the same Greek word for "chosen" (eklegomai) in Acts 1:24 - in reference to the Lord Jesus (Acts 1:2; cf. v. 6; Luke 6:13; cf. vv. 5, 46; John 6:70; cf. v. 68 and John 13:18; cf. vv. 13-14).
3. The "Lord" occurs along with the same Greek word for "ministry" (diakonia) in Acts 1:25 - in reference to the Lord Jesus (Acts 1:17; cf. v. 21; 20:24; 1 Corinthians 12:5; Ephesians 4:12; cf. Ephesians 4:5; Colossians 4:17; 1 Timothy 1:12).
4. The "Lord" occurs along the same Greek word for "apostleship" (apostolē) in Acts 1:25 - in reference to the Lord Jesus (Romans 1:5; cf. Romans 1:4; 1 Corinthians 9:2).
How so? Is the scripture calling Jesus' father Lord?Which proves you are even more confused.
is "God" used of the Word in the noun sense, or in the title sense, in Jn 1:1c? If in the noun sense, why do you insist on applying it to Jesus the man in the titular sense?Read John 1:1-14 again carefully. I will quote verses 1 an 14 here,
"In the beginning was the Word, and the Word was with God, and the Word was God.
And the Word became flesh and dwelt among us, and we have seen his glory, glory as of the only Son from the Father, full of grace and truth."
John 1:1, 14
What does it mean "the Word was God?"
It infers a transposition of a very significant kind as between heaven and earth. The transposition entailed a change in external form (Phil 2:6,7).What does it mean "the Word became flesh and dwelt among us?"
is "God" used of the Word in the noun sense, or in the title sense, in Jn 1:1c? If in the noun sense, why do you insist on applying it to Jesus the man in the titular sense?
What is used in heaven only in a noun sense wouldn't necessarily apply to a man of the flesh. Why do you suppose it would?
It infers a transposition of a very significant kind as between heaven and earth. The transposition entailed a change in external form (Phil 2:6,7).
Q: If pagan gods could flit between earth and heaven at will, how is your religion any more profound than paganism if your theology adopts the same approach? Why do believe that proposing two Gods, one in earth and another in heaven is honoring to God? Let me ask you: are you advocating polytheism? If not you are a votary of Sabellius.
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The Father is not an "attribute" of God in the bible, even if the Word and the Holy Spirit could be construed in that sense.The same goes for God. God is The Father. God is the Son. God is the Holy Spirit. All three are different attributes, but make up one God.
You're into philosophy now. If I lose my arms and legs, does that make me any less of a human being. If I lose my son (supposing I had a son), am I less of a human being. If my spirit is dead because of sin, am I less of a human being?Do you understand that multiple attributes can make up one entity?
Acts 1;24 does not say, Jesus.
You ignored all the evidence I gave that shows it could also refer to the father.Acts 1:24 does not say, "Father".
You ignored all the evidence I gave that shows it refers to Jesus.
Thanks for your evasion.
You showed nothing within the prayer where a word was used in association with the Lord that is used elsewhere in reference to the Father.You ignored all the evidence I gave that shows it could also refer to the father.
It is right there in redYou showed nothing within the prayer where a word was used in association with the Lord that is used elsewhere in reference to the Father.
To which I say God made Jesus Lord...I gave 4 very clear examples that show they are in reference to Jesus elsewhere.
I have a God who your God prays to. You have a God who submits to my God. My God is the head of your God...100% to 0%
I'll stick with the 100% and you can have nothing.
It is right there in red
Matthew 11:25
At that time Jesus answered and said, I thank thee, O Father, Lord of heaven and earth, because thou hast hid these things from the wise and prudent, and hast revealed them unto babes.
You are not making any sense...I presented a passage where Jesus calls God his father "Lord"...Are you saying that Jesus is referring to God the Lord of heaven and earth as a human person?People can be referred to as "kyrios," so your point is invalid. (Acts 16:30)
This one passage refutes your 4 points...Jesus calls his Father Lord of heaven and earth...So back to my point. Is my God the head of Jesus Christ your God? Yes or no?Post 231
You're still at 0%.
None of my 4 points were refuted.
I presented a passage where Jesus calls God his father "Lord"...
This one passage refutes your 4 points
Nothing in Acts 1: 24-26 says lode is referring to Jesus... but even if it is you still have to consider that God made Jesus Lord. Acts 2:36 Therefore let all the house of Israel know assuredly, that God hath made the same Jesus, whom ye have crucified, both Lord and Christ.But not in relation to any of the words used within the prayer in Acts 1:24-25.
Your denial is proof of nothing...When are you going to deal with this...?Pathetic.
A you say so affirmation doesn't cut it. You have to do much better than that.
You're still at 0%.
Nothing in Acts 1: 24-26 says lode is referring to Jesus.
thanksI agree.
It's not "lode," but Lord.
Oh yes, they are when you answer the questions... Is my God the head of Jesus Christ your God? Yes or no?The proofs I have supplied have still not been refuted.
only because you are afraid to answer the questions... Is my God the head of Jesus Christ your God? Yes or no?And you are still at 0%.
and you keep on dodging the questions... Is my God the head of Jesus Christ your God? Yes or no?Keep up the awful work.
and you keep on dodging the questions...
Is my God the head of Jesus Christ your God? Yes or no?I supplied the evidence first that you continually ignore.
You are still at 0%.
Thanks for keeping up your awful work.