But it cannot work in your sentence to make sense of the gospel. Here is the scripture..5 And now, O Father, glorify thou me with thine own self with the glory which I had with thee before the world was.
John 17:22
And the glory which thou gavest me I have given them; that they may be one, even as we are one:
John 17:24
Father, I will that they also, whom thou hast given me, be with me where I am; that they may behold my glory, which thou hast given me: for thou lovedst me before the foundation of the world.
Check out 1 Cor 15:40-45.
The Lord Jesus Christ had a natural body. Although he manifested the glory of the Son of God in it, per Jn 1:14, the glory of the spiritual body had not yet been given to Christ, and wasn't until after his ascension.
So in Jn 17:5, Jesus focuses on the glory of the Logos which is that of the Father, and which the Son of God in his human state reflected, and which was given back to him in full on his ascension. In Jn 17:6 Jesus returns to praying for his disciples.
In Jn 17:24, 25 Jesus asks that they may see his glory. Per Alford "ἔγνω, ἔγνωσαν, ἐγνώρισα, γνωρίσω, shew that our Lord spoke here of the then present time and disciples again, at the close of His prayer. The γνωρίσω is by the whole work and testimony of the Spirit completed in the Kingdom of God. This promise has been in fulfilment through all the history of the Church." This refers to being made cognisant of Jesus' glory by the Holy Spirit.
To the best sense of the gospel what you meant is wrong. God gives Jesus and Jesus in turn gives his followers. Using the word also in the "equally" sense would indicate believers also received the same as Jesus. Because the adverb is describing receiving glory.
2 Peter 1:17
For he received from God the Father honour and glory, when there came such a voice to him from the excellent glory, This is my beloved Son, in whom I am well pleased.
I did not say that believers receive the same glory as Christ. When used at the start of a sentence, "equally" can mean "of equal importance." May be you need to check your English grammar.
"Diet and exercise are
equally good" can mean "diet and exercise are of equal good" or it can refer back to a previous sentence, as if written "Of equal importance is that diet and exercise are good." Here I placed the adverb at the front, so the emphasis is on equality of import with the previous sentence, which is to say that: as important as there being one supreme deity, the Father, is the fact that the Father imparts of himself to others.
So I wrote "There is only God, entitled the 'Father'. But equally the Father gives of himself to others, even to Jesus."
You seem to have misconstrued it as "The Father gives of himself to [all] others in equal measure", but the words and grammar used certainly doesn't warrant it, as I put "equally" at the very beginning of the sentence.
If I had written "But the Father gives equally of himself to others, even to Jesus" I could have been accused of being ambiguous, but the "even to Jesus" remark shows that the whole emphasis is on Christ, as being the intended referent of "others to whom the Father gives."
So not in the least ambiguous. The whole gist of what I was saying is that whereas God is possessed of divine attributes,
of equal importance is that what he possesses he shares with others, and Jesus more than any other. But OTOH, if you had construed it that the Father gives fully of his divine attributes to Christ, you could not complain, per Col 2:9 "For in Christ all the fullness of the Deity lives in bodily form."
Moreover disciples are not excluded from divine attributes. Peter alludes to all disciples being "partakers of the
divine nature". The whole business of salvation is about gaining divine attributes.
Therefore,equally can equally mean "to an equal degree"
It can do, but seldom at the very beginning of a sentence.
15 All things that the Father hath are mine: therefore said I, that he shall take of mine, and shall shew it unto you.
They are his because his father gave him all things. Believers are shown these things.
They are given in the measure they are deemed entitled to receive, which depends on obedience.
This is referring to what the father has, however, the father gave all things to his son. No one can bypass the son to receive anything from the father.
Matthew 28:18
And Jesus came and spake unto them, saying, All power is given unto me in heaven and in earth.
John 17:2
As thou hast given him power over all flesh, that he should give eternal life to as many as thou hast given him.
You are suggesting that the father gives all things to his son then he gives some of the all things to others.
What is wrong with that?
15 All things that the Father hath are mine: therefore said I, that he shall take of mine, and shall shew it unto you.
You have to explain what you mean by became divine. Is it that Jesus became like God? Did he become God his father or did he become another God?
It is clear that the Logos shares the following attributes in common with the Father (1) Glory - Gk: doxa, (2) Form - Gk: morphe, (3) eternality, (4) nature - Gk: physis, (5) throne of God, and any others I have missed.
I can't say whether the Logos is "like" the Father (whatever that infers). All we are told is that the Logos is one with the Father.
What you say must make sense sir. I cannot make sense out of nonsense.
You are required to write sensibly. That way it makes sense on its own.
I am conversing meaningfully, the problem is the nonsense that you write. for example...what do you mean by "become divine?"
Divine means having the properties of a God or deity. By its very existence, divine lends itself to use with other that the supreme deity (the Father). So Holy Spirit (Spirit of God) is divine, in the sense that he can be blasphemed. If the Spirit of God is divine, so too must be the "Logos of God" Rev 19:13.