That's not it. You don't believe Jesus was a human being when he was on the earth.
But LN said, The Word became a human being. If the the stone became bread, is was bread. Since the Word became flesh with the same word and syntax, why was Jesus not a human being in the first century?
I added the part that has nothing to do with your misstatement here:
Post in thread 'Who is the God of.... Jesus Christ?'
Now can you explain why the inconsistency?
Then I'll help you see it. You said...
Who told you that?
2 Pe 1:4 are given unto us exceeding great and precious promises: that by these ye might be partakers of the divine nature, having escaped the corruption that is in the world through lust.
Then I'll help you see it. You said, "God is supreme over the human Jesus."
Jesus is not a human. If you had said "God was supreme over the human Jesus," I would likely agree with you.
Now you are ok with LN that the Word became a human being?
BDAG lists J 1:14 under γινομαι double...