The Real John Milton's latest activity

You are an unorthodox (heterodox) Trinitarian I suppose : acknowledging that he was God "before" the Incarnation, but not during. This...

What do you mean by “not an ordinary man” ? The bible says he was a human being like us in all ways, and subject to temptation like us...

For starters, he was the only man who did not sin; he was the perfect image of God — which the first Adam failed to live up to when he...

ὁ υἱὸς τοῦ θεοῦ (the son of God) is an appositive. Therefore ὁ υἱὸς τοῦ θεοῦ is another way of saying ὁ Χριστὸς (the Christ). ὁ υἱὸς τοῦ...

Not sure where you are getting the idea that monotheism is multiple (or poly) God persons /Gods exercising “one power of God.” The...

No, they believe Brahma, Vishnu and Shiva are the same God in different forms. Hinduism may be said to be the original Sabellianism...

Don’t see how that changes anything. If a Hindu said that Shiva (from this Trinity ) wasn’t God “independently” of Brahma, does that...

As I explained you can’t get that from the grammar and further it is polytheism plus the text at John 1:1 doesn’t even mention Jesus...

Not sure what that means . Meaning of words do not have to do with “essential properties” but with definition, that is, with what the...

Not necessarily , that is a philosophical statement which grammar does not and cannot address. All grammar denotes by the indefinite...

So Matthew 8:9 The Centurion is not saying that he is a man, but that he is a human essence under authority ?

You are not kidding, are you ? Nonsense.

For the obvious ? Look at the following: Ἰησοῦς ἦν άνθρωπος ….means “Jesus was a man” NOT “ Jesus was a certain man” NOR “Jesus had...

No, also true when it is a predicate nominative, and often also true when it is a direct object ( in the accusative) , etc.

I just told you that. άνθρωπος τις means “ a certain man.” But when Koine wants to say simply “ a man” it uses the anarthrous form...