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You’re absolutely right. Trying to interact with him does nothing but further his delusion. He really thinks he’s the most capable person in the world, and he hasn’t completed a single course in Greek or Hebrew and has no relevant education. It’s a waste of time. Anyone who listens to him is...

The difference here is that you do not have the requisite knowledge to make that kind of judgment. You are not qualified to evaluate anyone else’s ability to understand another language, given that you are naught but an ignoramus who suffers from megalomania and exhibits the pitfalls of the...

But it’s written in the past tense (ἔδωκεν) from the perspective of Jesus as he was speaking to the Jewish leaders who had posed the question to him. God had already granted that right to Jesus as he was speaking. He demonstrated it by raising the dead in the Gospels, did he not?

I’ve given you examples in the past, and you’ve moved the goal posts. You aren’t interested in doing any actual learning. You just want to call everyone else ignorant. And as for me, I’m not interested in playing your games.

The question is what is happening with the verb. In these three cases , all of the verbs deal with motion—φέρειν “bring, carry,” ἄγειν “bring, lead,” and ἰέναι “go.” The case that you mention here, however, is not a verb of motion (εἶναι “to be”). It is in this case (verbs that do not indicate...

Every single thing you write about the Bible is a distortion. That’s the ironic thing here.

Never mind. You're too stupid.

If I had made a mistake, I'd admit it. This isn't a mistake.

Sigh. “To eat pizza” has “to eat” as an infinitive and “pizza” as an object. When we talk about the structure, we talk about “to do” (infinitive) “something” (object). In this specific verse, “to have” is a verb (written as an infinitive as “to do”) and “life” is an object (written as...

“To have” is an infinitive. The verb “to do” is always used as a model for an infinitive, just as “someone” is used to refer to a person and “something” to an object. I’m quite aware that “have” and “do” are different verbs, and I’m not the one who is confused here. I happen to know what I’m...

There’s a semantic difference between give someone to eat something and give someone something to eat. The former is not good English—it should be allow someone to eat something. The latter is good English.

Yes, it’s nonsense. We don’t give people to do things. That’s not how ANYONE speaks English today. You’re sounding like a KJV-Only nut. Look at other translations and stop trying to force the KJV down our throats.

That’s not any definition of “troll” that I’ve ever seen. Though, truth be told, I do troll you. But you’re the only object of my trolling. You don’t troll @Roger Thornhill. No one trolls all the time. You have your exceptions.

The writers of the NT had Hebrew (or Aramaic) going on in their minds. We should never be surprised when Hebrew idioms make their way into the Greek of the New Testament.

One does not “give someone to do something” in English. It isn’t something we say. “I gave him to see my bank statement.” No, you allowed him to see your bank statement. So, what is the difference? The first is nonsense in English; the second is good English.

Yeah, you think ad hominems are a waste of time. Uh huh... Well, I think you use words as weapons and have no idea what they mean. In short, you’re a troll.

To tire you out is his goal.

It’s one of his troll tactics. Repeat the same discussions again and again. Many times even at the same time but over several threads. Wear down your interlocutor and make it look like he never answered the question. Make it appear that this is a new conversation and that you haven’t already...

Check the accent: θεῖος. Since the ultima is short and the penult is long, if the penult is stressed, it takes a circumflex (no an acute).

Rational brain... We’re talking about irrational things. Where does rationality come in?