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    εἰκών and μορφή

    Are sometimes synonyms. Example: Hebrews 10:1
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    Koine Sentences

    In this thread, anyone is welcome to challenge someone else to translate an English sentence into Koine . The main rule is that the sentence incorporate words found in the bible. So for instance the following type of translation request is a non-starter; “The geneticist jumped into a cab...
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    Modern Greek

    I've not studied modern Greek at all, but I came across this sentence, and could make it out without much difficulty with some clever guessing, but I also peeked at the English translation, here : My guesses Στο =In the εστιατόριο = Restaurant ο άντρας= the man, ὁ ἀνδρός τον κατάλογο =...
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    BeDuhn's astute observation

    Jason BeDuhn writes the following in p. 140 of his book Truth In Translation : He is quite right. The only two supposed counter examples are a diminutive παιδίον and τέκνον. It must be pointed out however that in Greek culture children were not considered to be "real" persons but objects...
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    Double Accusative of Object-Complement in Exodus 7:1 and it's proper translation

    Exodus ---- Double Accusative of Object-Compliment GGBB, p. 182 Definition: So let's take Matthew 22:43 as an example, which is practically identical to Exodus 7:1: We would do extreme injustice to this verse if we translated "..calls him "like" Lord / a lord..." Similarly, we cannot...
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    The grammar of "God and Man"

    When Trinitarians say Ἰησοῦς ἐστιν θεός καὶ ἄνθρωπος (Jesus is God and Man), is this a meaningful statement that an everyday person can understand , or is it an esoteric , complicated or perhaps even a meaningless chant like "Unke, Munke, Timpetoo, I wish, my wish is coming true," or "God...
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    Sh'va rules

    For starters -- Sh'vas are vocal when ---- 1. They are under the first letter of a word. (ex. דְּבָרִים) 2.When it's the second of two shewas in a row. (ex. יִּשְׁמְעוּ) [The shewa under shin would not be pronounced, but the one under mem would be.] 3. When it follows a long vowel. (ex...
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    Anarthrous θεός in the GNT

    I have observed two things about such a θεός : (1) If the anarthrous θεός refers to the God of Israel / the true God, it is always (and only) a reference to the Father in Heaven, to a single individual. (The same holds true of the articular θεός ). (2) The anarthrous θεός is only definite if...
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    "Anhypostasis" in the light of biblical grammar

    The doctrine of anhypostasis asserts that Jesus has "human nature" [ which Trinitarians commonly identity as σὰρξ (in the sense of someone with all of the human attributes )] and that he is ἄνθρωπος (again in the sense of "humanity," as in someone with the "complete" human nature) but NOT as...
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    Why Trinitarians are drawn to false leaders , false doctrines etc.

    I found this interesting:
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    "Is Modern Hebrew Yiddish ?"

    Start at around 12 minutes...
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    Luke 2:6

    Luke 2:6-7 The bible says that Jesus was born, therefore he came into literal existence at a point in time and was not eternally existing. This is one of the most obvious and strongest statements that Jesus is not God: even though it's no one's job to prove a negative.
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    Antecedent / postcedent of Ὃ in 1 John 1:1

    What is the antecedent of Ὃ in 1 John 1:1 ? Gryllus ?......... Clear, straight answers please.
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    Crazy Greek at Titus 2:13

    A poster wants Titus 2:13 to read as follows, see here: Gryllus: and There is so much wrong in above (don't know where to start really). But by far the biggest problem I see above is in his use of τῆς δόξης as an attributive adjective modifying θεοῦ . τῆς δόξης can't be used in this...
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    Titus 2:13 Attributive use of the genitive ?

    According to Trinitarians τῆς δόξης is to be taken as an “adjectival” description of ἐπιφάνειαν . For instance Bowman says the following: From my reading of the GNT, however, the head noun of an attributive genitive seems invariably to be articular, and preponderantly in the nominative case...
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    The grammar at Acts 4:13

    A Carm. poster claiming to have over 40 years of experience with "Greek" asserts that the Subject of the S-PN construction above is ἄνθρωποι , and that ἄνθρωποι here is indefinite, see here. In actual fact ἄνθρωποι is part of the PN and not the S. The Subject here is αὐτοί (which refers to...
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    Is there an example of the following construction in the GNT ?

    A Subject - Predicate Nominative Construction where the indefinite substantive is the Subject ? I've not seen one. It seems to me that if there is an indefinite substantive in such a construction, it is invariably the Predicate Nominative. For instance the following: John 18:35 Ἰουδαῖός is...
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    Ἦν and Ἐγένετο

    I was looking at John 1:6 and John 3:1... Ἦν δὲ ἄνθρωπος ἐκ τῶν Φαρισαίων, (3:1) and Ἐγένετο ἄνθρωπος, ἀπεσταλμένος παρὰ Θεοῦ, (1:6) I don't think apostle John was trying to say anything different by using Ἦν in 1:6 versus Ἐγένετο at John 3:1. I think those who say that Ἦν and Ἐγένετο can...
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    καλεῖται ἡ ἀκρόπολις ἔτι ὑπ᾽ Ἀθηναίων πόλις

    Smyth, see here, has been abused by some people at Carm. to make a (false) case for a (non-existence) rule of grammar concerning a Subject - Predicate Construction with an equative verb, like the one at John 1:1c. For starters καλεῖται is not an equative, to be verb. At John 1:1c we have an...
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    Temani Hebrew, reading rules

    A rule of Shva which modern Israeli Hebrew speakers [forget about Bible Belt Trinitarians] have forgotten is the following: Resource — Yemini Hebrew article. So for instance in Genesis 1:3 it would be wrong to read יְהִ֣י as yə-hî . The Shva here takes the sound of the Chireq . So same in...