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  1. R

    Is there any word or phrase in the Bible that ALWAYS refers to the COLLECTIVE?

    Thanks for doing that. I'd like to see a snapshot for my files if you ate able. I know the subject can get deep. I studied Murray Harris chapter on that years ago.
  2. R

    Is there any word or phrase in the Bible that ALWAYS refers to the COLLECTIVE?

    Hebrews 1:8 is a bad proof-text for the Trinitarian. In Greek it's either vocative or nominative. In my view since it's a quote from Psalm 45:7, and if it's vocative, the one being spoken of is God in the sense of the Israelite king. Hebrews 1:8 "God is thy throne for ever and ever"...
  3. R

    The "IT" Logos

    The material that can provide the answer is in BDB and BHS, but you need to be able to navigate the Hebrew to understand it. BHS indicates that there are manuscripts and so does Ginzberg. Unfortunately they don't seem to be identified. The Bible I quoted was merely to answer your objection...
  4. R

    The "IT" Logos

    However I accept your strict hermeneutic as long as you hold yourself to the same standard. Of course that means you can never try to prove the Trinity because with that standard you should not believe it yourself. 😂 But Hebrews 13:2 does appear to speak of the events of Genesis 18. And so...
  5. R

    The "IT" Logos

    YHWH does not share glory with the men/angels in 18:1,3; 19:1. Abraham recognized them as God's representatives and spoke to them as if he was speaking to Jehovah. I do harmonize Hebrews 13:2 to identify the men as angels and by definition the name angel means one sent to represent someone...
  6. R

    The "IT" Logos

    You are making an unsubstantiated claim that contradicts what God says. He says He does not share His glory with another. His personal glory. You say He shares what He says is His glory? Then give an example. Jesus does not just share glory, He shares his glory. Your problem remains...
  7. R

    The "IT" Logos

    That's irrelevant. Does God give His glory to another? No. Did Jesus give his glory to another? Yes at J 17. τὴν δόξαν τὴν ἐμὴν = My glory at J 17:24. Does not matter if it's the same glory. It's Jesus' personal glory. YHWH does not give his personal glory to another but Jesus did...
  8. R

    The "IT" Logos

    If you read John 17 it's clear. But I'll spoon feed you if you wish. Isa 42:8 is of no use to you. τὴν δόξαν τὴν ἐμὴν (my Glory) at J 17:24 was given to Jesus by His Father and it's the glory he gave his disciples in verse 22. That proof-text is dead.
  9. R

    The "IT" Logos

    Well then Jesus is not YHWH because he shared it with his disciples in J 17 😂
  10. R

    The "IT" Logos

    How does Abraham addressing the three angels as YHWH (because they are His angels) make Him plural?
  11. R

    The "IT" Logos

    I gave you one. This one. I predict you will find a reason to discount it. But I have refuted your claim. The Scriptures Bible “And said, YHWH, if now I have found favor (grace in Hebrew) in thy sight, pass not away, I pray thee, from thy servant:” (Genesis 18:3)
  12. R

    The "IT" Logos

    This article cites a translation: https://thejewishinstitute.wordpress.com/2014/04/15/252/
  13. R

    The "IT" Logos

    You are doubling down on your argument from silence. The manuscripts do document the change from YHWH to Adonai. You can't refute that. And you have not given any reason to reject it except appealing to the same translators who render YHWH in their translations as Lord. The name of the most...
  14. R

    The "IT" Logos

    What you fail to acknowledge is that this evidence comes directly from the manuscripts themselves. When a scribe changed the reading they were compelled to document it. The fact remains that the original reading was YHWH. Considering that the translators that you apparently endorse also...
  15. R

    The "IT" Logos

    So your best argument is an argument from silence? You don't demonstrate any experience with critical editions of the ancient biblical languages. They exist for translators and the reason for the alternative readings is for use in translating. You have given no valid reason to ignore the...
  16. R

    The "IT" Logos

    Good advice. How can you deny YHWH at GN 18:3 based on BDF?
  17. R

    The "IT" Logos

    And again: Are you saying that Jesus being sent from down from and coming into the world at John 3:13,17 is Jesus being born again?
  18. R

    The "IT" Logos

    The problem with your assertion is this: It's like tic tac toe. The first one who moves loses. You bear the burden of proof. I only need to show what is possible. The text gives a note that LORD at Genesis 18:3 was changed from YHWH. So does BDB. Therefore you can't ignore that and...
  19. R

    The "IT" Logos

    Are you saying that Jesus being sent from down from and coming into the world at John 3:13,17 is Jesus being born again?
  20. R

    The "IT" Logos

    Yes and so do you. The alternate translation in the footnote of BHS does translate to Abraham saying to the LORD YHWH y'alls eyes which means Abraham is speaking to more than one person. That means the LORD is more than one person. And that's not even considering the BHS reading for YHWH...
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