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I noticed that the description of the Angel in the LXX is slightly at variance with that given in the Masoretic text: "And it came to be that on the twenty fourth day of the first month I was at the bank of the great river which is called Tigris. And when I lifted up my eyes, behold, I saw...

I was studying the Hebrew and Greek of Proverbs 3 and noticed the following at verse 6: Notice the feminine form of the pronoun. It should be masculine (αὐτὸν ) shouldn't it ? I think the LXX wants the antecedent of the pronoun to be "wisdom" (σοφία) maybe, but that is no where near the...

The words in red are often "translated" to mean "till he / it is taken out of the way." Since when does ἕως ἐκ μέσου γένηται mean that ? μέσου means "midst," and γένηται means something like "to be" or "to become." So the expression actually means "until he/it comes to be in the midst,"...

Notice the two sets of nouns in simple apposition, the first set in black and the second in red. Παῦλος, the first noun of the first set is unquestionably a proper name, and the second noun of the first set ,ἀπόστολος, is a title which is the functional equivalent of a proper name because it...

In the bible we have the expression Θεοῦ Πατρὸς ( example Gal. 1:1) which is properly translated as “ God, the Father” ( notice the comma). There is however no such thing as “ God , the Son” in the GNT, let alone the expression “ God the Son.” In other words there is no such thing as Θεοῦ...

In Contra Arianos III he writes the following: Here is the English translation: Red above is a lie. The apostle John did not write ἐνεδύσατο σάρκα but σὰρξ ἐγένετο in John 1:14. In other words, the apostle did not say that the Word "put on flesh" but that the Word "became" flesh -- -----...

Look: John 1:1b καὶ ὁ λόγος ἦν πρὸς τὸν θεόν and (1) Isaiah 38:4 καὶ ἐγένετο λόγος κυρίου πρὸς Ησαιαν and more etc. The grammatical construction is identical. In every case something is towards someone, NOT one person is "with" another person. Some Trinitarians who do not know Biblical...

Grammatically speaking, there are apparently three ways of taking ὁ ὢν ἐπὶ πάντων ( though only one is really possible, for those who know their Biblical Koine, that is). In any case, here are the three options apparently: This thread is placed in the wrong forum. In the future take it to the...

According to the rules of Biblical grammar, the above denotes two different individuals because the article is repeated. Had the apostle intended one individual, the exclamation would have been penned as follows: Ὁ Κύριός μου καὶ Θεός μου. Thus any competent first century biblical Greek reader...