The Real John Milton
Member
I was looking at John 1:6 and John 3:1...
Ἦν δὲ ἄνθρωπος ἐκ τῶν Φαρισαίων, (3:1)
and Ἐγένετο ἄνθρωπος, ἀπεσταλμένος παρὰ Θεοῦ, (1:6)
I don't think apostle John was trying to say anything different by using Ἦν in 1:6 versus Ἐγένετο at John 3:1. I think those who say that Ἦν and Ἐγένετο can never be interchangeable are mistaken, as shown by the above examples. Both verbs are connoting the same thing -- that was a man ....
Ἦν δὲ ἄνθρωπος ἐκ τῶν Φαρισαίων, (3:1)
and Ἐγένετο ἄνθρωπος, ἀπεσταλμένος παρὰ Θεοῦ, (1:6)
I don't think apostle John was trying to say anything different by using Ἦν in 1:6 versus Ἐγένετο at John 3:1. I think those who say that Ἦν and Ἐγένετο can never be interchangeable are mistaken, as shown by the above examples. Both verbs are connoting the same thing -- that was a man ....