1 Timothy 2:5 verb tense

Truther

Well-known member
any scripture to support those ideas, For instance the Bible does not use the verb form. There is no mediates, or mediating. Just the noun mediator
Present tense...

5 For there is one God, and one mediator between God and men, the man Christ Jesus;


Not past tense as you surmise....

5 For there WAS one God, and one mediator between God and men, the man Christ Jesus;
 

civic

Well-known member
Present tense...

5 For there is one God, and one mediator between God and men, the man Christ Jesus;


Not past tense as you surmise....

5 For there WAS one God, and one mediator between God and men, the man Christ Jesus;
And lets not forget these two present tense verbs regarding His present role as Mediator. The poster thinks the verb is means past tense. How Absurd. He is incapable of understanding the basic rules of grammar and syntax learned in elementary school. He couldn't exegete himself out of a paper bag. He can only use eisegesis reading his own ideas into every text and makes a mockery out of Scripture and worse of all Jesus.

Hebrews 8:6
But now hath he obtained a more excellent ministry, by how much also he is the mediator of a better covenant, which was established upon better promises.

Hebrews 9:15
And for this cause he is the mediator of the new testament, that by means of death, for the redemption of the transgressions that were under the first testament, they which are called might receive the promise of eternal inheritance

conclusion: the irony in all of this is the poster comes to the language forum because he cannot read Greek or use a lexicon for help from others but rejects the Greek from those who have an understanding of it and holds onto his false premise when he is shown that his understanding of the Greek words and tenses oppose his view. He does the same thing with the English word for word translations of the bible all the while claiming he has a good grasp of English. One word depicts this behavior. Irony :)

hope this helps !!!
 
Last edited:

Truther

Well-known member
And lets not forget these two present tense verbs regarding His present role as Mediator. The poster thinks the verb is means past tense. How Absurd. He is incapable of understanding the basic rules of grammar and syntax learned in elementary school. He couldn't exegete himself out of a paper bag. He can only use eisegesis reading his own ideas into every text and makes a mockery out of Scripture and worse of all Jesus.

Hebrews 8:6
But now hath he obtained a more excellent ministry, by how much also he is the mediator of a better covenant, which was established upon better promises.

Hebrews 9:15
And for this cause he is the mediator of the new testament, that by means of death, for the redemption of the transgressions that were under the first testament, they which are called might receive the promise of eternal inheritance

conclusion: the irony in all of this is the poster comes to the language forum because he cannot read Greek or use a lexicon for help from others but rejects the Greek from those who have an understanding of it and holds onto his false premise when he is shown that his understanding of the Greek words and tenses oppose his view. He does the same thing with the English word for word translations of the bible all the while claiming he has a good grasp of English. One word depicts this behavior. Irony :)

hope this helps !!!
All he really needs to do is put away his presuppositions and take the KJV literally.

I need no "Greek" etc., but just my Bible to explain the 1st century church doctrines.

The "Greek" redefinitionists created all these modern factions anyway.
 
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