1cor 1:18

Theo1689

Well-known member
1Cor. 1:18 For the preaching of the cross is to them that perish foolishness; but unto us which are saved it is the power of God. (KJV)

1Cor. 1:18 Ὁ λόγος γὰρ ὁ τοῦ σταυροῦ τοῖς μὲν ἀπολλυμένοις μωρία ἐστί, τοῖς δὲ σωζομένοις ἡμῖν δύναμις Θεοῦ ἐστι. (TR)

A KJV-Only is trying to justify the rendering of "which are saved" for the continuous passive participle.

Comments?
 

Roger Thornhill

Well-known member
1Cor. 1:18 For the preaching of the cross is to them that perish foolishness; but unto us which are saved it is the power of God. (KJV)

1Cor. 1:18 Ὁ λόγος γὰρ ὁ τοῦ σταυροῦ τοῖς μὲν ἀπολλυμένοις μωρία ἐστί, τοῖς δὲ σωζομένοις ἡμῖν δύναμις Θεοῦ ἐστι. (TR)

A KJV-Only is trying to justify the rendering of "which are saved" for the continuous passive participle.

Comments?
Does he accept the New King James,


New King James Version
For the message of the cross is foolishness to those who are perishing, but to us who are being saved it is the power of God
 

Theo1689

Well-known member
Does he accept the New King James,

New King James Version
For the message of the cross is foolishness to those who are perishing, but to us who are being saved it is the power of God

That's funny!
One of his questions to me was, "so should it likewise be rendered, "them who are perishing"?

So I quoted him the ESV, NET, NASB, HCSB, and the NKJV.
So I'm guessing no, he doesn't accept the NKJ.
 

Roger Thornhill

Well-known member
That's funny!
One of his questions to me was, "so should it likewise be rendered, "them who are perishing"?

So I quoted him the ESV, NET, NASB, HCSB, and the NKJV.
So I'm guessing no, he doesn't accept the NKJ.
The verbal form for perishing and being saved are the same and in parallel. It's natural to take it as the NKJ does.
 

John Milton

Well-known member
1Cor. 1:18 For the preaching of the cross is to them that perish foolishness; but unto us which are saved it is the power of God. (KJV)

1Cor. 1:18 Ὁ λόγος γὰρ ὁ τοῦ σταυροῦ τοῖς μὲν ἀπολλυμένοις μωρία ἐστί, τοῖς δὲ σωζομένοις ἡμῖν δύναμις Θεοῦ ἐστι. (TR)

A KJV-Only is trying to justify the rendering of "which are saved" for the continuous passive participle.

Comments?
I think you could justify the KJV's translation if the translators were conceptualizing the responses given by an audience who already knew the gospel but were hearing it again. However, the passage may be understood to refer to how the gospel is received by those hearing it for the first time.
 
I think you could justify the KJV's translation if the translators were conceptualizing the responses given by an audience who already knew the gospel but were hearing it again. However, the passage may be understood to refer to how the gospel is received by those hearing it for the first time.
Indeed, and it also highlights the idea that salvation is a process that is worked out over one’s lifetime and not just a single event. There’s certainly something to that (cf. Philippians 2:12).
 
Comments?
They are probably KJV-Only for dogmatic reasons. With everything that is out there, there can be no intellectual justification for KJV-Onlyism. Do you really think you’re going to get through to them on the basis of a Greek participle when Greek has never been the forté of those who think that the King James is God’s preserved English translation?
 
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