4 Reasons Romans 7 is a Pre- Christian Experience

There were devout, God-fearing Gentiles before the advent of Christianity.

Act 10:1-2 There was a certain man in Caesarea called Cornelius, a centurion of what was called the Italian Regiment, (2) a devout man and one who feared God with all his household, who gave alms generously to the people, and prayed to God always.

Act 10:34-35 Then Peter opened his mouth and said: "In truth I perceive that God shows no partiality. (35) But in every nation whoever fears Him and works righteousness is accepted by Him.

Act 13:16
Then Paul stood up, and motioning with his hand said, "Men of Israel, and you who fear God, listen:
So, none of the Gentiles are under the Law written on their hearts by God? How will they be judged?
 
You cannot be zealous about nothing; to have no object is to preclude zeal. You can have an object without having zeal, but you cannot be zealous without something about which to be zealous. So to talk about delighting in your zealousness assumes the existence of the object about which you are zealous, and the delight is equally for the object about which you are zealous. It is not a question of them being the same "thing" per se, but that if there is zeal for object X, and that there is delight in being zealous, then there is delight to one degree or another for the object or goal of the zeal.


Doug
<sigh>
Never mind.
 
So, none of the Gentiles are under the Law written on their hearts by God? How will they be judged?
Yes there are

Romans 2:14-15 (NIV2011)
14 (Indeed, when Gentiles, who do not have the law, do by nature things required by the law, they are a law for themselves, even though they do not have the law.
15 They show that the requirements of the law are written on their hearts, their consciences also bearing witness, and their thoughts sometimes accusing them and at other times even defending them.)
 
So, none of the Gentiles are under the Law written on their hearts by God? How will they be judged?
What? Where are you getting that from? Not me. I showed how devout & God-fearing some Gentiles were without being obligated to observe Mosaic Law. I thought I was agreeing with you on something. Weird.
 
I'm sure he and his household were devout and God-fearing prior to becoming acquanted with Christ, Christians, and Christianity, Howie.
Acts 10:22 (KJV)
22 And they said, Cornelius the centurion, a just man, and one that feareth God, and of good report among all the nation of the Jews, was warned from God by an holy angel to send for thee into his house, and to hear words of thee.
 
What? Where are you getting that from? Not me. I showed how devout & God-fearing some Gentiles were without being obligated to observe Mosaic Law. I thought I was agreeing with you on something. Weird.
I am seeking clarification, I am the dumbest Christian in all of Christendom, for that forgiven. I am talking about the Mosaic Covenant (Moral Law) as the thing that does condemn even the Gentiles.

Your thoughts?
 
So, none of the Gentiles are under the Law written on their hearts by God? How will they be judged?
Romans 2:14-15 (KJV)
14 For when the Gentiles, which have not the law, do by nature the things contained in the law, these, having not the law, are a law unto themselves:
15 Which shew the work of the law written in their hearts, their conscience also bearing witness, and their thoughts the mean while accusing or else excusing one another;)
 
the Mosaic Covenant (Moral Law) as the thing that does condemn even the Gentiles
My thoughts are in agreement with this quote from Albert Barnes' Commentary on Romans 2:14-15 as below:

By nature every man thus approves or condemns his own acts; and there is not a profounder principle of the divine administration, than thus compelling every man to pronounce on the moral character of his own conduct. Conscience may be enlightened or unenlightened; and its use may be greatly perverted by false opinions. Its province is not to communicate any new truth, it is simply to express judgment, and to impart pleasure or inflict pain for a man’s own good or evil conduct. The apostle’s argument, does not require him to say that conscience revealed any truth, or any knowledge of duty, to the Gentiles, but that its actual exercise proved that they had a knowledge of the Law of God. Thus, it was a witness simply of that fact.
 
My thoughts are in agreement with this quote from Albert Barnes' Commentary on Romans 2:14-15 as below:

By nature every man thus approves or condemns his own acts; and there is not a profounder principle of the divine administration, than thus compelling every man to pronounce on the moral character of his own conduct. Conscience may be enlightened or unenlightened; and its use may be greatly perverted by false opinions. Its province is not to communicate any new truth, it is simply to express judgment, and to impart pleasure or inflict pain for a man’s own good or evil conduct. The apostle’s argument, does not require him to say that conscience revealed any truth, or any knowledge of duty, to the Gentiles, but that its actual exercise proved that they had a knowledge of the Law of God. Thus, it was a witness simply of that fact.
What do you suppose the law written on their heart pertains to?
 
What do you suppose the law written on their heart pertains to?
If I may ammend your question to align with the text, it becomes (See text below) "What do you suppose the work of the law written in their hearts pertains to?"

Rom 2:12-16
For as many as have sinned without law will also perish without law, and as many as have sinned in the law will be judged by the law (13) (for not the hearers of the law are just in the sight of God, but the doers of the law will be justified; (14) for when Gentiles, who do not have the law, by nature do the things in the law, these, although not having the law, are a law to themselves, (15) who show the work of the law written in their hearts, their conscience also bearing witness, and between themselves their thoughts accusing or else excusing them) (16) in the day when God will judge the secrets of men by Jesus Christ, according to my gospel.

It is the work of the law to provide the structure for the divinely ordained, right relationships on two axes:
  • the vertical axis of the relationship between God and man
  • the horizontal axis of the relationship between man and fellow-man

The work of the law in the hearts of Gentiles causes them to behave in ways that they themselves judge as either right or wrong, as if they had a moral code.

The thing is that although the Jews had the revelation of the Law through Moses, they proved incapable as a nation of upholding it.
 
If I may ammend your question to align with the text, it becomes (See text below) "What do you suppose the work of the law written in their hearts pertains to?"

Rom 2:12-16
For as many as have sinned without law will also perish without law, and as many as have sinned in the law will be judged by the law (13) (for not the hearers of the law are just in the sight of God, but the doers of the law will be justified; (14) for when Gentiles, who do not have the law, by nature do the things in the law, these, although not having the law, are a law to themselves, (15) who show the work of the law written in their hearts, their conscience also bearing witness, and between themselves their thoughts accusing or else excusing them) (16) in the day when God will judge the secrets of men by Jesus Christ, according to my gospel.

It is the work of the law to provide the structure for the divinely ordained, right relationships on two axes:
  • the vertical axis of the relationship between God and man
  • the horizontal axis of the relationship between man and fellow-man

The work of the law in the hearts of Gentiles causes them to behave in ways that they themselves judge as either right or wrong, as if they had a moral code.

The thing is that although the Jews had the revelation of the Law through Moses, they proved incapable as a nation of upholding it.
My question was

What do you suppose the law written on their heart pertains to?

Can you answer the question I asked?
 
What is the correct way to phrase the question?
How can you tell me my question is improperly phrased

it my question?

but if you do not want to address it you are free not to
The Scripture we are discussing does not state that the law is written on the hearts of the Gentiles, but rather that the work (singular) of the law is shown to be written in their hearts, and I have answered 100% to what the work of the law written in the hearts of Gentiles pertains.

Be blessed this day.
 
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