L
Ladodgers6
Guest
Was a friendThe person must be a friend of yours for how could you possible know a persons heart unless the person has told you what you are claiming about them .
Was a friendThe person must be a friend of yours for how could you possible know a persons heart unless the person has told you what you are claiming about them .
So, none of the Gentiles are under the Law written on their hearts by God? How will they be judged?There were devout, God-fearing Gentiles before the advent of Christianity.
Act 10:1-2 There was a certain man in Caesarea called Cornelius, a centurion of what was called the Italian Regiment, (2) a devout man and one who feared God with all his household, who gave alms generously to the people, and prayed to God always.
Act 10:34-35 Then Peter opened his mouth and said: "In truth I perceive that God shows no partiality. (35) But in every nation whoever fears Him and works righteousness is accepted by Him.
Act 13:16 Then Paul stood up, and motioning with his hand said, "Men of Israel, and you who fear God, listen:
<sigh>You cannot be zealous about nothing; to have no object is to preclude zeal. You can have an object without having zeal, but you cannot be zealous without something about which to be zealous. So to talk about delighting in your zealousness assumes the existence of the object about which you are zealous, and the delight is equally for the object about which you are zealous. It is not a question of them being the same "thing" per se, but that if there is zeal for object X, and that there is delight in being zealous, then there is delight to one degree or another for the object or goal of the zeal.
Doug
Yes there areSo, none of the Gentiles are under the Law written on their hearts by God? How will they be judged?
I'm sure he and his household were devout and God-fearing prior to becoming acquanted with Christ, Christians, and Christianity, Howie.Also, Christianity and Cornelius were at the same time.
What? Where are you getting that from? Not me. I showed how devout & God-fearing some Gentiles were without being obligated to observe Mosaic Law. I thought I was agreeing with you on something. Weird.So, none of the Gentiles are under the Law written on their hearts by God? How will they be judged?
Only if God was drawing him (Jn 6:44).I'm sure he and his household were devout and God-fearing prior to becoming acquanted with Christ, Christians, and Christianity, Howie.
That's a givenOnly if God was drawing him (Jn 6:44).
Acts 10:22 (KJV)I'm sure he and his household were devout and God-fearing prior to becoming acquanted with Christ, Christians, and Christianity, Howie.
I am seeking clarification, I am the dumbest Christian in all of Christendom, for that forgiven. I am talking about the Mosaic Covenant (Moral Law) as the thing that does condemn even the Gentiles.What? Where are you getting that from? Not me. I showed how devout & God-fearing some Gentiles were without being obligated to observe Mosaic Law. I thought I was agreeing with you on something. Weird.
Romans 2:14-15 (KJV)So, none of the Gentiles are under the Law written on their hearts by God? How will they be judged?
My thoughts are in agreement with this quote from Albert Barnes' Commentary on Romans 2:14-15 as below:the Mosaic Covenant (Moral Law) as the thing that does condemn even the Gentiles
What do you suppose the law written on their heart pertains to?My thoughts are in agreement with this quote from Albert Barnes' Commentary on Romans 2:14-15 as below:
By nature every man thus approves or condemns his own acts; and there is not a profounder principle of the divine administration, than thus compelling every man to pronounce on the moral character of his own conduct. Conscience may be enlightened or unenlightened; and its use may be greatly perverted by false opinions. Its province is not to communicate any new truth, it is simply to express judgment, and to impart pleasure or inflict pain for a man’s own good or evil conduct. The apostle’s argument, does not require him to say that conscience revealed any truth, or any knowledge of duty, to the Gentiles, but that its actual exercise proved that they had a knowledge of the Law of God. Thus, it was a witness simply of that fact.
???????Good ?
Ok I had not gotten your pointI know it was a good question to ask
If I may ammend your question to align with the text, it becomes (See text below) "What do you suppose the work of the law written in their hearts pertains to?"What do you suppose the law written on their heart pertains to?
My question wasIf I may ammend your question to align with the text, it becomes (See text below) "What do you suppose the work of the law written in their hearts pertains to?"
Rom 2:12-16 For as many as have sinned without law will also perish without law, and as many as have sinned in the law will be judged by the law (13) (for not the hearers of the law are just in the sight of God, but the doers of the law will be justified; (14) for when Gentiles, who do not have the law, by nature do the things in the law, these, although not having the law, are a law to themselves, (15) who show the work of the law written in their hearts, their conscience also bearing witness, and between themselves their thoughts accusing or else excusing them) (16) in the day when God will judge the secrets of men by Jesus Christ, according to my gospel.
It is the work of the law to provide the structure for the divinely ordained, right relationships on two axes:
- the vertical axis of the relationship between God and man
- the horizontal axis of the relationship between man and fellow-man
The work of the law in the hearts of Gentiles causes them to behave in ways that they themselves judge as either right or wrong, as if they had a moral code.
The thing is that although the Jews had the revelation of the Law through Moses, they proved incapable as a nation of upholding it.
No, because it is incorrectly phrased.My question was
What do you suppose the law written on their heart pertains to?
Can you answer the question I asked?
How can you tell me my question is improperly phrasedNo, because it is incorrectly phrased.
What is the correct way to phrase the question?
The Scripture we are discussing does not state that the law is written on the hearts of the Gentiles, but rather that the work (singular) of the law is shown to be written in their hearts, and I have answered 100% to what the work of the law written in the hearts of Gentiles pertains.How can you tell me my question is improperly phrased
it my question?
but if you do not want to address it you are free not to