dberrie2020
Super Member
Could anyone explain for us, if Abraham's promises was given the same as ours, as to "imputed righteousness", as Bonnie defines it--then why the testimony of God here?
Genesis 26:4-5---King James Version
4 And I will make thy seed to multiply as the stars of heaven, and will give unto thy seed all these countries; and in thy seed shall all the nations of the earth be blessed;
5 Because that Abraham obeyed my voice, and kept my charge, my commandments, my statutes, and my laws.
Now--I would like to address another of your claims here, IE--that when the scriptures talk of obedience--it's only a reference to belief in Christ, independent of the obedience referenced in Genesis26:4-5.
Could you explain for us--why Christ testified it was obedience to His voice, charge, commandments, and laws--if obedience was limited to belief alone--in opposition to Genesis26:4-5--where God Himself testified the promises were due to obedience to His voice, charge, commandments, and His laws?
James 2:18-20---King James Version
18 Yea, a man may say, Thou hast faith, and I have works: shew me thy faith without thy works, and I will shew thee my faith by my works.
19 Thou believest that there is one God; thou doest well: the devils also believe, and tremble.
20 But wilt thou know, O vain man, that faith without works is dead?
That's LDS theology--and the Biblical witness.