brotherofJared
Well-known member
You must be confused. Isaac agreed to no such terms. Laban deceived him. The contract was broken at that point but because he had already laid with Leah, it was his duty to keep her as his wife. This would fit the D&C description. But there is no indication that he first obtained Leah's permission to marry Rachel. Leah didn't make the terms. It wasn't her contract.Isaac married Leah on the terms that he would marry eventually marry Rebekah. If she changed the terms, she would essentially be the one reneging on the contract.
And this answers my question how? According to D&C 132, the first wife was to give her consent. Leah didn't. They weren't following your "rules" of polygamy engagement. In case you missed the point of my argument. D&C 132 was not meant to be the only justification for polygamy. The events which took place between Jacob and his wife are evidence of that. Now, it's fine if you want to ignore the evidence, but it's still there.In Mormonism, each are married under their own free will and choice. Women are regarded as property as they were in the Old Testament. Technically, Emma should have been the second witness on polygamy, and Joseph should have been more open.
Fine. The question in the OP and how this relates places both Joseph Smith and Abraham in the same group either way you look at it.The commandment is to "cleave unto your wife and none else" (D&C 42:22-23) otherwise it's adultery.
If polygamy be valid, it just shows us how much sacrifice is required relying wholly upon the merits of Christ.
I don't know how you came to that conclusion.
No doubt. I see little reason to explain it to you. You don't seem to be able to grasp the concepts I do explain. Maybe someone else on this board can help you out.I'm a little confused on what your saying here.