Abraham and Joseph Smith covenanted to live the New and Everlasting Covenant.

Isaac married Leah on the terms that he would marry eventually marry Rebekah. If she changed the terms, she would essentially be the one reneging on the contract.
You must be confused. Isaac agreed to no such terms. Laban deceived him. The contract was broken at that point but because he had already laid with Leah, it was his duty to keep her as his wife. This would fit the D&C description. But there is no indication that he first obtained Leah's permission to marry Rachel. Leah didn't make the terms. It wasn't her contract.
In Mormonism, each are married under their own free will and choice. Women are regarded as property as they were in the Old Testament. Technically, Emma should have been the second witness on polygamy, and Joseph should have been more open.
And this answers my question how? According to D&C 132, the first wife was to give her consent. Leah didn't. They weren't following your "rules" of polygamy engagement. In case you missed the point of my argument. D&C 132 was not meant to be the only justification for polygamy. The events which took place between Jacob and his wife are evidence of that. Now, it's fine if you want to ignore the evidence, but it's still there.
The commandment is to "cleave unto your wife and none else" (D&C 42:22-23) otherwise it's adultery.
Fine. The question in the OP and how this relates places both Joseph Smith and Abraham in the same group either way you look at it.
If polygamy be valid, it just shows us how much sacrifice is required relying wholly upon the merits of Christ.
:rolleyes:
I don't know how you came to that conclusion.
I'm a little confused on what your saying here.
No doubt. I see little reason to explain it to you. You don't seem to be able to grasp the concepts I do explain. Maybe someone else on this board can help you out.
 
You must be confused. Isaac agreed to no such terms. Laban deceived him. The contract was broken at that point but because he had already laid with Leah, it was his duty to keep her as his wife. This would fit the D&C description. But there is no indication that he first obtained Leah's permission to marry Rachel. Leah didn't make the terms. It wasn't her contract.
Where are you getting this? This is what it actually says:

24 And Laban gave unto his daughter Leah Zilpah his maid for an handmaid.
25 And it came to pass, that in the morning, behold, it was Leah: and he said to Laban, What is this thou hast done unto me? did not I serve with thee for Rachel? wherefore then hast thou beguiled me?
26 And Laban said, It must not be so done in our country, to give the younger before the firstborn.
27 Fulfil her week, and we will give thee this also for the service which thou shalt serve with me yet seven other years.
28 And Jacob did so, and fulfilled her week: and he gave him Rachel his daughter to wife also.

Women were basically property. Please show me where Leah had any say in the matter.
And this answers my question how? According to D&C 132, the first wife was to give her consent. Leah didn't. They weren't following your "rules" of polygamy engagement. In case you missed the point of my argument. D&C 132 was not meant to be the only justification for polygamy. The events which took place between Jacob and his wife are evidence of that. Now, it's fine if you want to ignore the evidence, but it's still there.
I never argued that D&C 132 was the only justification for polygamy. Sarah chose for Abraham. Issac was deceived. The law of Moses were commanded to marry the widow of their brother. But none of those apply to us in our day. The only justification that has ever been given for us to justify polygamy is D&C 132, and those directions were not followed.

Fine. The question in the OP and how this relates places both Joseph Smith and Abraham in the same group either way you look at it.
Exactly. So we don't need to discuss all other ways polygamy was justified. It's not relevant to us.
:rolleyes:
I don't know how you came to that conclusion.
It doesn't matter. I don't want to go into another tangent.
No doubt. I see little reason to explain it to you. You don't seem to be able to grasp the concepts I do explain. Maybe someone else on this board can help you out.
Ummm...ok. I'll be waiting for anyone to explain that which is authorized by God is also an abomination. I'm sure it will be a very interesting concept. Lol!
 
Wrong.
I didn't "leave out" anything.



Irrelevant.
ALL sin is "worthy of death".



False accusations.
All are worthy of death? how interesting you interpret the Bible as your own sweet indulgence... hmmm
The question you could not answer and try to avoid is the Law of Moses and adulterers were to be stoned...

Leviticus 20:10-12 "If a man commits adultery with another man's wife, even with the wife of his neighbour, both the adulterer and adulteress must be put to death....


So folks, based on this; Theo I believe would have Abraham stoned to death and also the other great patriarchs who lived and practiced plural marriage... very interesting... hmm
 
All are worthy of death? how interesting you interpret the Bible as your own sweet indulgence... hmmm

No, I interpret the Bible according to how language works.

The question you could not answer and try to avoid is the Law of Moses and adulterers were to be stoned...

I HAVE answered it, many times.
You simply don't like the answer.

Leviticus 20:10-12 "If a man commits adultery with another man's wife, even with the wife of his neighbour, both the adulterer and adulteress must be put to death....

So folks, based on this; Theo I believe would have Abraham stoned to death and also the other great patriarchs who lived and practiced plural marriage... very interesting... hmm

Nope, I wouldn't have them stoned, I don't have the authority to do so.
But they were sinners, and I fail tot understand how you can deny that all our sinners, even the "patriachs".

You need to stop worshipping the "patriarchs" and start worshipping GOD.
 
No, I interpret the Bible according to how language works.



I HAVE answered it, many times.
You simply don't like the answer.



Nope, I wouldn't have them stoned, I don't have the authority to do so.
But they were sinners, and I fail tot (to) understand how you can deny that all our (are) sinners, even the "patriachs" (patriarchs)

You need to stop worshipping the "patriarchs" and start worshipping GOD.
And we interpret according to its accuracy.... don't you just wish we had the original autographs (manuscripts) hmm.
Its not that I don't like the answers, I don't see any consistency on your part... Abraham according to the law and not you personally should be stoned... period. Do you agree with the law or not? its a simple yes or no question.
 
And we interpret according to its accuracy.... don't you just wish we had the original autographs (manuscripts) hmm.

We have the original text.
And so we know that when Joseph "changed" the Scriptures, he was (pardon the pun) talking out of his hat.

Its not that I don't like the answers, I don't see any consistency on your part... Abraham according to the law and not you personally should be stoned... period. Do you agree with the law or not? its a simple yes or no question.

For the 107th time, yes.
Again, I've answered your question MANY times.
You simply don't like the answer.

You deny that the Patriarchs were sinless, and you worship them instead of God.
 
We have the original text.
And so we know that when Joseph "changed" the Scriptures, he was (pardon the pun) talking out of his hat.



For the 107th time, yes.
Again, I've answered your question MANY times.
You simply don't like the answer.

You deny that the Patriarchs were sinless, and you worship them instead of God.
Yes, you agree that the Patriarchs who practiced plural marriage were adulterers... thx.
And I don't actually know what means he used to translate... neither do you for sure... we have some witnesses that claim the seer stones in the Urim and the Thummim and others that say he used a rock... its not how he did it, its what's in the BOM that you and others skip over...
 
Yes, you agree that the Patriarchs who practiced plural marriage were adulterers... thx.
And I don't actually know what means he used to translate... neither do you for sure... we have some witnesses that claim the seer stones in the Urim and the Thummim and others that say he used a rock... its not how he did it, its what's in the BOM that you and others skip over...

Wow.... Seriously?!

So you are claiming that the BoM (which Joseph claims he translated himself), describes how Joseph translated the BoM?!

Isn't that a wee tad anachronistic?
 
Wow.... Seriously?!

So you are claiming that the BoM (which Joseph claims he translated himself), describes how Joseph translated the BoM?!

Isn't that a wee tad anachronistic?
Yep, now show me in the Book of Mormon which you referenced about where I can read that JS used a seer rock... it does mention a
Urim and the Thummim. Then tell me what is the story in the Book of Mormon that you reject and why? don't bother if this takes to much of your time.
 
Yep, now show me in the Book of Mormon which you referenced about where I can read that JS used a seer rock... it does mention a
Urim and the Thummim.

That's irrelevant to Smith's translation practice.
How could the BoM have recorded something that hadn't yet happened?

Then tell me what is the story in the Book of Mormon that you reject and why?

Sorry, I can't find "Joseph Smith" mentioned ANYWHERE in the BoM, so I have no clue what you're talking about.

I'm beginning to think that YOU'RE the one who's never read the BoM.
 
That's irrelevant to Smith's translation practice.
How could the BoM have recorded something that hadn't yet happened?



Sorry, I can't find "Joseph Smith" mentioned ANYWHERE in the BoM, so I have no clue what you're talking about.

I'm beginning to think that YOU'RE the one who's never read the BoM.
Well the Bible speaks of it... meaning the BOM... you just need to know how to interpret the how, what and why of the Book of Ezekiel... hmm

 
Where are you getting this? This is what it actually says:
I don't know. Somehow you just can't see it right there under your nose.
Women were basically property
That has nothing to do with the argument.
Please show me where Leah had any say in the matter.
The point is, she didn't have any say. Obviously, the law of Sarah was not a requirement to practice polygamy. When you understand the argument, come back.
 
The point is, she didn't have any say. Obviously, the law of Sarah was not a requirement to practice polygamy. When you understand the argument, come back.
Here's the argument:.
Joseph Smith was instructed to practice polygamy given certain conditions. He, and other general authorities, didn't follow those conditions, and the Church was going to lose everything if they didn't give it up. Abraham was justified and JS wasn't. But hey, if you think we can just arbitrarily do whatever on the sole basis that someone once did something in the Bible, go get a couple more wives, use that rationale, and see how that works out for you.
 
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