Eightcrackers
Well-known member
Why?
Two curves can decay to infinity with one always less than the other. Indeed, one always half of the other, for example.
You are using an out of date browser. It may not display this or other websites correctly.
You should upgrade or use an alternative browser.
You should upgrade or use an alternative browser.
Aliens haven't contacted us yet because there has not until recently been signs of intelligent life on earth.
- Thread starter cjab
- Start date
Two curves can decay to infinity with one always less than the other. Indeed, one always half of the other, for example.
Infinity is not a real number.Why?
Two curves can decay to infinity with one always less than the other. Indeed, one always half of the other, for example.
Eightcrackers
Well-known member
Fine - two force curves can decay asymptotically towards zero, with one always less than the other.
Finite mass does not connote finite range.
You'll have to explain what you mean in more detail and how it relates to your gravity point.Fine - two force curves can decay asymptotically towards zero, with one always less than the other.
Finite mass does not connote finite range.
Eightcrackers
Well-known member
You asserted that a finite mass's gravitational field vanishes after a finite distance - I want to know why this follows.You'll have to explain what you mean in more detail and how it relates to your gravity point.
No, you misunderstood me. I asserted that a finite mass's gravitational field exerts proportionally less force on distant objects of increasing mass. Thus the gravitational pull of the earth's field on the Sun is very weak proportionally, as compared with the gravitational pull of the Sun's field on the earth. However conventionally gravity is measured by taking the mass of both objects into account.You asserted that a finite mass's gravitational field vanishes after a finite distance - I want to know why this follows.
Eightcrackers
Well-known member
Why can't two objects of equal rest mass, accelerate towards each other past the speed of light?No, you misunderstood me. I asserted that a finite mass's gravitational field exerts proportionally less force on distant objects of increasing mass. Thus the gravitational pull of the earth's field on the Sun is very weak proportionally, as compared with the gravitational pull of the Sun's field on the earth. However conventionally gravity is measured by taking the mass of both objects into account.
Both objects' relativistic mass would increase at the same rate, and always be equal.
I read this:Why can't two objects of equal rest mass, accelerate towards each other past the speed of light?
Both objects' relativistic mass would increase at the same rate, and always be equal.
If gravity is the only force acting on an object, the sum of kinetic energy and gravitational energy is constant. Increases in kinetic energy are balanced by decreases in gravitational energy, and vice versa.