There is only one Jesus. You have imagined a false dichotomy.
The one Jesus was always with the Father.
That is imaginative and false story telling since there is one Jesus, one Christ, or one person indicated, and the passage doesn't state or imply what you read into it and then claim that it states or implies.
The post I was quoting claimed: "Col chapters 2-3 about the glorified resurrected Christ now seated at the right hand of God not the earthly Christ pre resurrection". The context would indicate that it is about the same Jesus at two points in time rather than two Jesuses.
The scriptures directly contradict the idea that Jesus was always with the father, as God himself says "you are my son,
today I have begotten you", and "I
will be his father, and he
will be my son". The clear declarations by God himself are that the son is something that didn't exist at the time God made the promises.
As I fully affirm that there is one Jesus, the Jesus of the bible, who was not immortal, not omniscient, and not omnipotent, but was rather quite mortal, and didn't know some very important things, and was powerless. The Jesus of the bible is far far different than the Jesus of the trinitarian.
That is more imaginative story telling. Even if a person doesn't understand or accept the category that is commonly known in the Latin west as person as used in the Trinitarian formula, it remains that the Word which became incarnate was in the beginning with God, and was God. See John 1:1-4.
Btw, since you claim God is one person without attempting to redefine the word "person" in contrast to its use in the Trinitarian formula that in itself is a tacit admission that you accept the word or category as used in the Trinitarian formula.
If trinitarians don't know what the word "person" means, then they should choose another word to describe their doctrine. If trinitarians are using a definition of the word "person" that differs greatly from the common usage, then they are fraudulently using the word "person".
If by the "latin west", you use what the Cappadocian fathers described as God is 3 hypostases (3 persons), and 1 ousia (being), I submit that the writer to the Hebrews says God has a single hypostases (Hebrews 1:3).
The pages of the scriptures are quite clear, it uses singular personal pronouns to describe God, and when God is seen, he is always one person and often he is next to this other person known as Jesus. And interestingly, God is never seen with the 3rd person of the trinity.
We can agree that in a sense this is true of the one Jesus or Christ, that is, Jesus received the glory that He had with God before the creation or world was. See John 17:1-5.
Jesus may have had glory with the one true God before the creation, but by definition that means he isn't the one true God. Regarding the timestamp you wish to impose of Jesus having glory before the foundation of the world, he was also murdered before the foundation of the world and that occurred in approximately 30 AD. Which begs the question, which world? There are at least two in the scriptures, or even 3 depending on your understanding of Paul's reference to the 3rd heaven or Peter's declarations in 2 Peter 3:1-13.
The assertions you've made are simply Scripturally false and illogical if you accept the Scriptural witness as the word of God, as authoritative. For example, there was no debate among the faithful or request for explanation by the faithful when John taught and wrote of the Word that was with God and was God, the Word became incarnate, etc. It is the same when Peter spoke of the Spirit being God.
Yes, the word was with the God, and what God was, the word was. It should be noted that Jesus isn't mentioned in John 1:1, the thing that became Jesus is mentioned.
As to what the faithful believed, they believed that God is Christ's father, and Jesus is God's son (quite unlike trinitarian doctrine). They didn't believe that the word was a pre-existent person, but rather God's word. You seem to believe the latter also as you claim that the scriptural witness is the word of God.
Just as the faithful at the time of Christ were familiar with the Scriptures, what some people now call the Old Testament, so was the Apostle Paul. He too, under the inspiration of the Holy Spirit wrote of the one Jesus or one Yahweh.
“5. For even if they are being called "gods" whether in heaven or on earth (just as there are many gods and many lords), 6. yet for us there is one God, the Father, of whom are all things, and we for Him; and one Lord Jesus Christ, through whom are all things, and through whom we live.” (1Cor 8:5-6, EMTV)
For the record, what is underlined above are English translations which in Greek indicate means. All things are from God through Jesus, the one Jesus.
Let's read the claims carefully:
- There is one God
- That one God is a single person
- That single person is Christ's father
Therefore
- God is not three persons
- The holy spirit isn't the one God
- The son isn't the one God.
Whatever you wish to make of Jesus from the passage, it is readily apparent that the god Paul is speaking of is a different god that the god of the trinitarian.