Steven Avery
Well-known member
Simple question,
For those who say that ὁ ὢν is part of an attributive expression describing Christ (which does seem sensible despite many objections here) why not simply except the attribute as "is over all", ἐπὶ πάντων. Why do you try to shoehorn θεὸς as an apposition attribute?
It look like θεὸς εὐλογητὸς is part of an independent phrase, with two possible meanings (Christ is God blessed, or a doxology to God. "God is blessed") that should not be broken up. (See the posts above about the "natural association" of θεὸς and εὐλογητὸς and the grammatical connection.)
Thanks!
Romans 9:5 (AV)
Whose are the fathers,
and of whom as concerning the flesh Christ came,
who is over all,
God blessed for ever.
Amen.
For those who say that ὁ ὢν is part of an attributive expression describing Christ (which does seem sensible despite many objections here) why not simply except the attribute as "is over all", ἐπὶ πάντων. Why do you try to shoehorn θεὸς as an apposition attribute?
It look like θεὸς εὐλογητὸς is part of an independent phrase, with two possible meanings (Christ is God blessed, or a doxology to God. "God is blessed") that should not be broken up. (See the posts above about the "natural association" of θεὸς and εὐλογητὸς and the grammatical connection.)
Thanks!
Romans 9:5 (AV)
Whose are the fathers,
and of whom as concerning the flesh Christ came,
who is over all,
God blessed for ever.
Amen.