Are the Zoroastrians the descendants of the 10 lost tribes of Israel?


Active member
This is something I've mused on for a while now. I think it makes the most sense of the appearance of the Zoroastrian religion in the 5th century BC.

The ten northern tribes were carried into exile into Persia after 722 BC, and we see the appearance of Zoroastrianism within a couple hundred years in the same region (modern-day Iran). The curious thing about it is that, as far as we know, Zoroastrianism is only the second monotheistic religion ever to appear on the world scene after Judaism. Monotheism is the exception, not the rule, in antiquity. How did monotheism come to Persia, if not through the descendants of Israel?

The fact that Zoroastrianism is otherwise so different from Judaism shouldn't surprise us, since we know that the Northern Kingdom was sent into exile to begin with because of their fall into if they are the ten lost tribes, we shouldn't expect perfect harmony with the Jewish religion. But I think it's similar enough to raise the question of whether Judaism was its origin.