I said that that the asyndeton in this passage cannot show contrast.So you also deny that "John 1:3-4 can show contrast" and not merely that "it doesn't in John 1:3-4."
You've not proven that your understanding of the text is possible. Then what's the difference, you ask? The difference is that my assertions are correct, and your are not. I'm not wasting any more time with you. You don't know Greek, and not one scholar agrees with any of your assertions.You have given some reasons why you don't think it does, but that's not proving what you said.
Your third-grade level work of fiction disregards real scholarship that demonstrates that you have no understanding of John 1. Those are the facts, and that's all I am going to say on the matter, the inevitable whining that you will do afterward, notwithstanding.My recent analysis shows that there is contrast shown in most of the cases of Asyndeton in the prologue except for one category that does not match John 1:3-4.