Atonement extended to All

TomFL

Well-known member
John 3:16–17 (KJV 1900)
16 For God so loved the world, that he gave his only begotten Son, that whosoever believeth in him should not perish, but have everlasting life. 17 For God sent not his Son into the world to condemn the world; but that the world through him might be saved.


Key is John's use of the term world. In regard to that let us examine lexical, biblical and other data.

With respect to the use of kosmos in the Gospel of John, Carson pointed out the word characteristically means human beings in rebellion against God.65 In John’s prologue kosmos means apostate humanity in rebellion against God. In John 1:29, the sins of the “world” are what must be atoned for.66 In 3:16, the world is spoken of as being loved and condemned, and then some are saved out of it. The latter two outcomes occur because of either belief or unbelief according to 3:18. John 3:19 is consistent with 3:18. No linguistic, exegetical, or theological grounds exist for reducing the meaning of “world” to “the elect.” In fact, in John 17:6, the elect are defined over against the world. Owen made John 3:16 read, “God so loved those he chose out of the world,” which changes the sense of the verse into the opposite of its intended meaning. To make the meaning of “world” here “the elect” is to commit a logical and linguistic mistake of confusing categories.67
Whosoever Will (p. 80). B&H Publishing Group. Kindle Edition.

b. of all mankind, but especially of believers, as the object of God’s love J 3:16, 17c; 6:33, 51; 12:47.

ARNDT, W. ET AL., A Greek-English lexicon of the New Testament and other early Christian literature : a translation and adaption of the fourth revised and augmented edition of Walter Bauer’s Griechisch-deutsches Worterbuch zu den Schrift en des Neuen Testaments und der ubrigen urchristlichen Literatur, 446.

Metonymically, the world meaning the inhabitants of the earth, men, mankind (Matt. 5:14; 13:38; John 1:29; 3:16; Rom. 3:6, 19; 1 Cor. 4:13; 2 Cor. 5:19; Heb. 11:7; 2 Pet. 2:5; 1 John 2:2).
Complete word study dictionary

(3) all of humanity (Matt. 5:14; John 3:16; 1 Cor. 4:13); Holman treasury of bible words

the inhabitants of the world: θεατρον εγενηθημεν τω κοσμω και αγγελοις και ανθρωποις, 1 Corinthians 4:9 (Winer's Grammar, 127 (121)); particularly the inhabitants of the earth, men, the human race (first so in Sap. (e.g.10:1)): Matthew 13:38; 18:7; Mark 14:9; John 1:10, 29 (36 L in brackets); 3:16f; 6:33,51; 8:26; 12:47; 13:1; 14:31; 16:28; 17:6,21,23; Romans 3:6,19; 1 Corinthians 1:27f

Thayers Greek English lexicons

(c) by metonymy, the "human race, mankind," e.g., Matt. 5:14; John 1:9 [here "that cometh (RV, 'coming') into the world" is said of Christ, not of "every man;" by His coming into the world He was the light for all men]; John 1:10; John 3:16, 17 (thrice),19; John 4:42, and frequently in Rom. 1 Cor. and 1 John; Vines expository dictionary

a study of κόσμος [world] in the fourth Gospel. The “world” is pictured as mankind in general (John 7:24; 12:19, etc.) and is seen in a twofold relation to Christ. Primarily it denotes those who have rebelled against God (John 17:25) and have followed their “ruler,” Satan (John 12:31; 14:30; 16:11); as such it is dominated by wickedness (John 7:7) and has rejected Jesus (John 1:10) and his disciples (John 15:18; 17:14). On the other hand, however, it is still the object of God’s love (John 3:16) and salvation (John 3:17; 12:41), and Jesus came to provide life for it (John 1:29; 6:33). The disciples are to continue Jesus’ salvific mission to the world (John 17:17-19) Grant Osborne Exegetical notes on Calvinism

Parallel passage

John 12:46–47 (KJV 1900)
46 I am come a light into the world, that whosoever believeth on me should not abide in darkness. 47 And if any man hear my words, and believe not, I judge him not: for I came not to judge the world, but to save the world.

Where the world which Christ came not to Judge but to save includes any man that believes not
 

civic

Active member
Its good to be back fellas and lets see where this thread takes us. Good OP Tom and good question tester.
 

TomFL

Well-known member
Does the meaning of the word atonement include the appeasement of the wrath of God?
Yes and certainly there is a such an offer. Full benefit of Christ's atonement however is dependent upon accepting Christ's offer of reconciliation through faith in him. Atonement is provisional. There is also a temporal here and now aspect to it as judgment upon mankind is deferred and opportunity for repentance provided

John 12:46–48 (KJV 1900)
46 I am come a light into the world, that whosoever believeth on me should not abide in darkness. 47 And if any man hear my words, and believe not, I judge him not: for I came not to judge the world, but to save the world. 48 He that rejecteth me, and receiveth not my words, hath one that judgeth him: the word that I have spoken, the same shall judge him in the last day.

2 Peter 3:9 (KJV 1900)
9 The Lord is not slack concerning his promise, as some men count slackness; but is longsuffering to us-ward, not willing that any should perish, but that all should come to repentance.
 

Matt Slick

CARM President
Staff member
The sufficiency of Christ's blood and the extent of the legal act of His sacrifice are not the same things. Christ's blood is sufficient to cover all people. But the sufficiency relates to ability and value which is different than a legal debt. Sin is a legal debt (Matt. 6:12 with Luke 11:4) since it is breaking the Law of God (1 John 3:4). Legal debts can be transferred, and peoples' sin debts were transferred to Jesus (1 Pet. 2:24). Their sin debt was canceled at the cross, not when we believe (Col. 2:14). Our justification, which is different than Christ's atonement, occurs when we believe (Rom. 3:28; 4:5; 5:1). But Christ canceled the sin debt at the cross (Col. 2:13-14; John 19:30) before we were alive. He took our place (Isa. 53:4-6). Furthermore, sins cannot be held against a sinner if his sin debt is canceled. Therefore, logically Christ only legally bore the sins of the elect even though his blood was sufficient to cover all. Otherwise, this would necessitate universalism and the unrighteousness of God judging people and sending them to hell for sins that have been paid for, been canceled, and no longer can be held to a person’s account.
 

1Thess521

Well-known member
Yes and certainly there is a such an offer. Full benefit of Christ's atonement however is dependent upon accepting Christ's offer of reconciliation through faith in him. Atonement is provisional. There is also a temporal here and now aspect to it as judgment upon mankind is deferred and opportunity for repentance provided

John 12:46–48 (KJV 1900)
46 I am come a light into the world, that whosoever believeth on me should not abide in darkness. 47 And if any man hear my words, and believe not, I judge him not: for I came not to judge the world, but to save the world. 48 He that rejecteth me, and receiveth not my words, hath one that judgeth him: the word that I have spoken, the same shall judge him in the last day.

2 Peter 3:9 (KJV 1900)
9 The Lord is not slack concerning his promise, as some men count slackness; but is longsuffering to us-ward, not willing that any should perish, but that all should come to repentance.

IF the meaning of the word atonement includes the appeasement of the wrath of God
AND IF those in Hell are under the wrath of God;
THEN atonement was not made for those that are under God's wrath in Hell;

;John 3: 35 The Father loves the Son and has placed everything in his hands. 36 Whoever believes in the Son has eternal life, but whoever rejects the Son will not see life, for God’s wrath remains on them.

IOW atonement was not made for those God knew would reject Christ
 

1Thess521

Well-known member
IF the meaning of the word atonement includes the appeasement of the wrath of God
AND IF those in Hell are under the wrath of God;
THEN atonement was not made for those that are under God's wrath in Hell;

;John 3: 35 The Father loves the Son and has placed everything in his hands. 36 Whoever believes in the Son has eternal life, but whoever rejects the Son will not see life, for God’s wrath remains on them.

If their sin were atoned for: they would not be under the just wrath of God
 

John t

Active member
Does the meaning of the word atonement include the appeasement of the wrath of God?
It depends upon which theory of the Atonement you believe

The Reformers, namely Calvin and Luther and subsequently the Reformers believe that Jesus Christ was the penal substitute for the sins of the world. That means that because there is a penalty, namely death for all the sins of the world. Upon the Cross, Jesus became the Lamb slain for the sins of those believing in Him. That is an adaption of Anselm's Satisfaction theory.

Other theories of what Jesus did include the "Moral Influence Theory" the "Ransom Theory" the "Christus Victor theory" the "Satisfaction Theory" (Anselm's 12th century theory of the Atonement)

Other theories, and more extensive explanations may be found here : https://www.sdmorrison.org/7-theories-of-the-atonement-summarized/
 

John t

Active member
Where the world which Christ came not to Judge but to save includes any man that believes not

Wanna translate that into English? 😜

John said it better:

John 3:
17 For God did not send his Son into the world to condemn the world, but in order that the world might be saved through him.
18 Whoever believes in him is not condemned, but whoever does not believe is condemned already, because he has not believed in the name of the only Son of God.
19 And this is the judgment: the light has come into the world, and people loved the darkness rather than the light because their deeds were evil.
 

1Thess521

Well-known member
It depends upon which theory of the Atonement you believe

The Reformers, namely Calvin and Luther and subsequently the Reformers believe that Jesus Christ was the penal substitute for the sins of the world. That means that because there is a penalty, namely death for all the sins of the world. Upon the Cross, Jesus became the Lamb slain for the sins of those believing in Him. That is an adaption of Anselm's Satisfaction theory.

Other theories of what Jesus did include the "Moral Influence Theory" the "Ransom Theory" the "Christus Victor theory" the "Satisfaction Theory" (Anselm's 12th century theory of the Atonement)

Other theories, and more extensive explanations may be found here : https://www.sdmorrison.org/7-theories-of-the-atonement-summarized/
"Does the meaning of the word atonement include the appeasement of the wrath of God?"

I am asking about the meaning of a word
it does not depend upon which theory of the Atonement you believe.
 

John t

Active member
"Does the meaning of the word atonement include the appeasement of the wrath of God?"

I am asking about the meaning of a word
it does not depend upon which theory of the Atonement you believe.
Sorry that you did not like my answer

My post indicated that there were several ways to understand the meaning of the word, ATONEMENT and your theological education is important in determining what to believe.

Obviously you did not look at the link I provided or else, you would have answered differently. Just as an example, it is the liberal churches/ social justice churches who believe in the "moral influence" theory of the Atonement Therefore, it should be obvious that there is no single, agreed upon definition of the word "atonement" in the theological world.
 

TomFL

Well-known member
The sufficiency of Christ's blood and the extent of the legal act of His sacrifice are not the same things. Christ's blood is sufficient to cover all people. But the sufficiency relates to ability and value which is different than a legal debt. Sin is a legal debt (Matt. 6:12 with Luke 11:4) since it is breaking the Law of God (1 John 3:4). Legal debts can be transferred, and peoples' sin debts were transferred to Jesus (1 Pet. 2:24). Their sin debt was canceled at the cross, not when we believe (Col. 2:14). Our justification, which is different than Christ's atonement, occurs when we believe (Rom. 3:28; 4:5; 5:1). But Christ canceled the sin debt at the cross (Col. 2:13-14; John 19:30) before we were alive. He took our place (Isa. 53:4-6). Furthermore, sins cannot be held against a sinner if his sin debt is canceled. Therefore, logically Christ only legally bore the sins of the elect even though his blood was sufficient to cover all. Otherwise, this would necessitate universalism and the unrighteousness of God judging people and sending them to hell for sins that have been paid for, been canceled, and no longer can be held to a person’s account.
Hello Matt. I would say the extent of Christ's atonement and the application of the atonement are not the same thing. I seems to me you may have confounded the extent of the atonement and the application of the atonement. The extent of the atonement tells us for whom Christ's died while the application of the atonement concerns those who receive\s its benefits.

The extent is defined in a number of verses

Hebrews 2:9 (KJV 1900)
9 But we see Jesus, who was made a little lower than the angels for the suffering of death, crowned with glory and honour; that he by the grace of God should taste death for every man.

1 Timothy 2:4–6 (KJV 1900)
4 Who will have all men to be saved, and to come unto the knowledge of the truth. 5 For there is one God, and one mediator between God and men, the man Christ Jesus; 6 Who gave himself a ransom for all, to be testified in due time.

1 Timothy 4:10 (KJV 1900)
10 For therefore we both labour and suffer reproach, because we trust in the living God, who is the Saviour of all men, specially of those that believe.

1 John 4:14 (KJV 1900)
14 And we have seen and do testify that the Father sent the Son to be the Saviour of the world.

in any case the passages from John cited in the op demonstrate that God's love and giving his son for the world includes those who will never believe

rather than a hypothetical sufficiency of Christ blood as you see I see a real sufficiency capable of saving whosoever will believe. It seems to me John does also

John 3:14–18 (KJV 1900)
14 And as Moses lifted up the serpent in the wilderness, even so must the Son of man be lifted up: 15 That whosoever believeth in him should not perish, but have eternal life. 16 For God so loved the world, that he gave his only begotten Son, that whosoever believeth in him should not perish, but have everlasting life. 17 For God sent not his Son into the world to condemn the world; but that the world through him might be saved. 18 He that believeth on him is not condemned: but he that believeth not is condemned already, because he hath not believed in the name of the only begotten Son of God.

Thank you
 

TomFL

Well-known member
IF the meaning of the word atonement includes the appeasement of the wrath of God
AND IF those in Hell are under the wrath of God;
THEN atonement was not made for those that are under God's wrath in Hell;

;John 3: 35 The Father loves the Son and has placed everything in his hands. 36 Whoever believes in the Son has eternal life, but whoever rejects the Son will not see life, for God’s wrath remains on them.

IOW atonement was not made for those God knew would reject Christ
Hello Tester

You have made the assumption that the atonement provides its own benefit. In my op I noted the atonement was provisional. It seems you have not considered that.

In a provisional atonement an offer is made to all but only those who believe receive its benefit - application

It is important to differentiate between the extent and the application of the atonement

Those in hell were included in the extent of the atonement that is there was a real offer of salvation made to them but they never received the application of the atonement by appropriating its benefit through faith

John 3 gives us as a example of provisional atonement

Moses lifting up the serpent in the wilderness

John 3:14–15 (KJV 1900)
14 And as Moses lifted up the serpent in the wilderness, even so must the Son of man be lifted up: 15 That whosoever believeth in him should not perish, but have eternal life.

and relates it to Christ's atonement

as for John 3:36 you have to ask yourself are those described - all unbelievers currently experiencing God's wrath or will they experience it at the Judgment

John 12:47–48 (KJV 1900)
47 And if any man hear my words, and believe not, I judge him not: for I came not to judge the world, but to save the world. 48 He that rejecteth me, and receiveth not my words, hath one that judgeth him: the word that I have spoken, the same shall judge him in the last day.
 

TomFL

Well-known member
Wanna translate that into English? 😜

John said it better:

John 3:
17 For God did not send his Son into the world to condemn the world, but in order that the world might be saved through him.
18 Whoever believes in him is not condemned, but whoever does not believe is condemned already, because he has not believed in the name of the only Son of God.
19 And this is the judgment: the light has come into the world, and people loved the darkness rather than the light because their deeds were evil.
Sorry my meaning was not clear to you

The statement

Where the world which Christ came not to Judge but to save includes any man that believes not

reflects what is stated by John

John 12:47–48 (KJV 1900)
47 And if any man hear my words, and believe not, I judge him not: for I came not to judge the world, but to save the world. 48 He that rejecteth me, and receiveth not my words, hath one that judgeth him: the word that I have spoken, the same shall judge him in the last day.
 

Nondenom40

Active member
Sorry that you did not like my answer

My post indicated that there were several ways to understand the meaning of the word, ATONEMENT and your theological education is important in determining what to believe.

Obviously you did not look at the link I provided or else, you would have answered differently. Just as an example, it is the liberal churches/ social justice churches who believe in the "moral influence" theory of the Atonement Therefore, it should be obvious that there is no single, agreed upon definition of the word "atonement" in the theological world.

Not to be a stick in the mud but isn't that why we have lexicons? Its been my experience that a particular group with a differing viewpoint is the one that usually changes the definition of the word to suit their theology. Thinking of the rcc and charitoo or jw's and col 1:15 with firstborn. There are a number of meanings behind propitiation depending on the context, but whether or not it satisfies Gods wrath depending on your theology is another thing entirely.
 

Thistle

Well-known member
Hello Matt. I would say the extent of Christ's atonement and the application of the atonement are not the same thing. I seems to me you may have confounded the extent of the atonement and the application of the atonement. The extent of the atonement tells us for whom Christ's died while the application of the atonement concerns those who receive\s its benefits.

The extent is defined in a number of verses

Hebrews 2:9 (KJV 1900)
9 But we see Jesus, who was made a little lower than the angels for the suffering of death, crowned with glory and honour; that he by the grace of God should taste death for every man.

1 Timothy 2:4–6 (KJV 1900)
4 Who will have all men to be saved, and to come unto the knowledge of the truth. 5 For there is one God, and one mediator between God and men, the man Christ Jesus; 6 Who gave himself a ransom for all, to be testified in due time.

1 Timothy 4:10 (KJV 1900)
10 For therefore we both labour and suffer reproach, because we trust in the living God, who is the Saviour of all men, specially of those that believe.

1 John 4:14 (KJV 1900)
14 And we have seen and do testify that the Father sent the Son to be the Saviour of the world.

in any case the passages from John cited in the op demonstrate that God's love and giving his son for the world includes those who will never believe

rather than a hypothetical sufficiency of Christ blood as you see I see a real sufficiency capable of saving whosoever will believe. It seems to me John does also

John 3:14–18 (KJV 1900)
14 And as Moses lifted up the serpent in the wilderness, even so must the Son of man be lifted up: 15 That whosoever believeth in him should not perish, but have eternal life. 16 For God so loved the world, that he gave his only begotten Son, that whosoever believeth in him should not perish, but have everlasting life. 17 For God sent not his Son into the world to condemn the world; but that the world through him might be saved. 18 He that believeth on him is not condemned: but he that believeth not is condemned already, because he hath not believed in the name of the only begotten Son of God.

Thank you
What if atonement has been applied to "all men" respecting original sin [Romans 5:18], but not respecting personal sin [Romans 3:23]? Thus, when men achieve their moral majority [no pun intended] they now have their own sins to answer for, and must be saved "by grace, through faith" [Ephesians 2:8-9] "in baptism" [ Colossians 2:12]. This "appeal to God for a clean conscience" [1 Peter 3:21] of course is not universal, but a distributive obligation grounded in the redemptive work of God.
 

TomFL

Well-known member
What if atonement has been applied to "all men" respecting original sin [Romans 5:18], but not respecting personal sin [Romans 3:23]? Thus, when men achieve their moral majority [no pun intended] they now have their own sins to answer for, and must be saved "by grace, through faith" [Ephesians 2:8-9] "in baptism" [ Colossians 2:12]. This "appeal to God for a clean conscience" [1 Peter 3:21] of course is not universal, but a distributive obligation grounded in the redemptive work of God.
The death of Christ suffices for all sin

He that believes is free from all condemnation

John 3:14–19 (KJV 1900)
14 And as Moses lifted up the serpent in the wilderness, even so must the Son of man be lifted up: 15 That whosoever believeth in him should not perish, but have eternal life. 16 For God so loved the world, that he gave his only begotten Son, that whosoever believeth in him should not perish, but have everlasting life. 17 For God sent not his Son into the world to condemn the world; but that the world through him might be saved. 18 He that believeth on him is not condemned: but he that believeth not is condemned already, because he hath not believed in the name of the only begotten Son of God. 19 And this is the condemnation, that light is come into the world, and men loved darkness rather than light, because their deeds were evil.


The benefits of Christ's death are provisionally offered to all but only those who believe receive the benefits
 

John t

Active member
Not to be a stick in the mud but isn't that why we have lexicons? Its been my experience that a particular group with a differing viewpoint is the one that usually changes the definition of the word to suit their theology. Thinking of the rcc and charitoo or jw's and col 1:15 with firstborn. There are a number of meanings behind propitiation depending on the context, but whether or not it satisfies Gods wrath depending on your theology is another thing entirely.
You are conflating a lexicon with a biblical dictionary. They are different.

A Bible dictionary such as Bakers, Harper's or Easton's will explain in English (the critical difference) the meaning of a particular term as it appears in the Bible. Here is an example:



SIN—is “any want of conformity unto or transgression of the law of God” (1 John 3:4; Rom. 4:15), in the inward state and habit of the soul, as well as in the outward conduct of the life, whether by omission or commission (Rom. 6:12–17; 7:5–24). It is “not a mere violation of the law of our constitution, nor of the system of things, but an offence against a personal lawgiver and moral governor who vindicates his law with penalties. The soul that sins is always conscious that his sin is (1) intrinsically vile and polluting, and (2) that it justly deserves punishment, and calls down the righteous wrath of God. Hence sin carries with it two inalienable characters, (1) ill-desert, guilt (reatus); and (2) pollution (macula).”, Hodge’s Outlines.
The moral character of a man’s actions is determined by the moral state of his heart. The disposition to sin, or the habit of the soul that leads to the sinful act, is itself also sin (Rom. 6:12–17; Gal. 5:17; James 1:14, 15).


Easton, M. G. (1893). In Easton’s Bible dictionary. New York: Harper & Brothers.

Compare that with this, the Hebrew-English Lexicon

סָבַב vb. turn about, go around, surround — Qal 1. turn, intrans.: a. turn about, oft. as preliminary to something else; of door, turn on (עַל) its hinge; turn (toward one); also c. אַל־; of cup of ˊי‍, it shall come round unto (עַל־, with hostile implic.); of Jordan, turn לְאָחוֹר; turn about from (מֵעַל), (מִן), + אֶל־; so of inheritance it shall not go about from (מִן) tribe to (אֶל־) tribe, also (לְ for אֶל־); cf. (abs.) (cf. Hiph. 1 b); = be brought round, c. acc. loc. (of ark). b. turn = change, (of land, changed like [ךְּ, i.e. into] a plain), cf. Hiph. 1 c. c. fig. turn (in a new direction) to do something (inf.). 2. a. march, or walk, around, c. acc. (city). b. go partly round, circle about, skirt, c. acc. (land); of rivers. c. make a round, or circuit, go about to, c. acc. loc.; go about in (בְּ), cf. also (c. בְּ), so c. acc.; = make a circuitous march (c. acc. דֶּרֶךְ). d. surround, encompass, abs.; c.

Whitaker, R., Brown, F., Driver, S. R. (Samuel R., & Briggs, C. A. (Charles A. (1906). The Abridged Brown-Driver-Briggs Hebrew-English Lexicon of the Old Testament: from A Hebrew and English Lexicon of the Old Testament by Francis Brown, S.R. Driver and Charles Briggs, based on the lexicon of Wilhelm Gesenius. Boston; New York: Houghton, Mifflin and Company.


ἀγών [ᾶ], ῶνος, ὁ, Aeol. ἄγωνος, ον, ὁ, Alc.121 (also E. ap. Sch. Il.Oxy.1087.60); Elean dat. pl. ἀγώνοιρ GDI1172.26: (ἄγω):—gathering, assembly, ἵζανεν εὐρὺν ἀ. Il.23.258; λῦτο δʼ ἀ. 24.1, cf. Od.8.200; νεῶν ἐν ἀγῶνι Il.15.428, cf. Eust.1335.57: esp. assembly met to see games, freq. in Il.23; Ὑπερβορέων ἀ. Pi.P.10.30; κοινοὺς ἀ. θέντες A.Ag.845.
2. place of contest, lists, course, βήτην ἐς μέσσον ἀ. Il.23.685, cf. 531, Od.8.260, Hes.Sc.312, Pi.P.9.114, and esp. Th.5.50: prov., ἔξω ἀγῶνος out of the lists or course, i.e. beside the mark, Pi.P.1.44, Luc.Anach.21: pl., κατʼ ἀγῶνας Od.8.259.
II. assembly of the Greeks at the national games, ὁ ἐν Ὀλυμπίῃ


Liddell, H. G., Scott, R., Jones, H. S., & McKenzie, R. (1996). A Greek-English lexicon (p. 18). Oxford: Clarendon Press.


Thus, the lexicon is concerned with the different forms of the word as it appears in Scripture and in secular writings. Of course, I do not expect you to understand the Greek and Hebrew, but in getting a random definition for (transliterated) agon I was surprised to find a reference to the Olympics

That you sought to use lexicons was good; it shows a desire to learn and have definitive answers. therefore, I do not scold in any manner. Rather, I teach. Send me your email address, and I will send the bill for your tutoring session. ;)
 

John t

Active member
The benefits of Christ's death are provisionally offered to all but only those who believe receive the benefits
That goes without saying!

Since the Atonement is sufficient to pay the penalty of one human, it is also sufficient to pay the price for all. The difference is the application of the efficacy of the Atonement.

Basically, there are three logical options:
  1. Because the Atonement of Jesus Christ is sufficiently efficacious for the salvation of all, then all humanity is saved
  2. Because the Atonement of Jesus Christ is sufficiently efficacious for the salvation of all, then there must be an explanation why some reject it either through sloth, or ignorance
  3. Because the Atonement of Jesus Christ is sufficiently efficacious for the salvation of all, but some knowingly chose to reject it, then there must be an explanation why God does not refuse it to all humanity so that none are really saved.
Out of hand, and in deference to the CARM rules about Universalism, option 1 is rejected.

Option 2 is based upon the Romans 2 argument where there is no excuse for anyone not seeing the clear witness of Scripture about salvation. It eliminates any suggestion that God is somehow responsible for the case that some do not want to be saved:

Romans 2:
1 Therefore you have no excuse, O man, every one of you who judges. For in passing judgment on another you condemn yourself, because you, the judge, practice the very same things.​
2 We know that the judgment of God rightly falls on those who do such things.​
3 Do you suppose, O man—you who judge those who do such things and yet do them yourself—that you will escape the judgment of God?​
4 Or do you presume on the riches of his kindness and forbearance and patience, not knowing that God's kindness is meant to lead you to repentance?​

Option 3 is fleshed out using my favorite verse in the Bible, and which was the first verse I ever memorized.

John 3:17 For God did not send his Son into the world to condemn the world, but in order that the world might be saved through him.​
This is my favorite pericope because it answers the question, "Why did you ever save me. Lord?"

Ephesians 2:1 And you were dead in the trespasses and sins​
2 in which you once walked, following the course of this world, following the prince of the power of the air, the spirit that is now at work in the sons of disobedience—​
3 among whom we all once lived in the passions of our flesh, carrying out the desires of the body and the mind, and were by nature children of wrath, like the rest of mankind.​
4 But God, being rich in mercy, because of the great love with which he loved us,​
5 even when we were dead in our trespasses, made us alive together with Christ—by grace you have been saved—​
6 and raised us up with him and seated us with him in the heavenly places in Christ Jesus,​
7 so that in the coming ages he might show the immeasurable riches of his grace in kindness toward us in Christ Jesus.​
8 For by grace you have been saved through faith. And this is not your own doing; it is the gift of God,​

Simply put, I am saved because God loved me before the foundation of the world, and explicitly, He saved me

Ephesians 1: 3 Blessed be the God and Father of our Lord Jesus Christ, who has blessed us in Christ with every spiritual blessing in the heavenly places,​
4 even as he chose us in him before the foundation of the world, that we should be holy and blameless before him. In love​
5 he predestined us for adoption through Jesus Christ, according to the purpose of his will,​
God the Father specifically ordained my salvation, and just as He did with Abraham, it is based solely on my confidence in him that He who began a good work in me shall keep and preserve me well past the days of Christ's Second Coming. (Philippians 1:6 paraphrased)

God the Father ordained the Atonement for all, Jesus Christ, the Son accomplished the task, and Holy Spirit wooed me to accept and to apply the Atonement to my heart.
 
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