Theo1689
Well-known member
Here is the poster who is a complete waste of time, and engages in blatant double standards. He runs away from passages I bring up, but then he brings up IRRELEVANT passages, and expects me to addrress them, even though he won't address my RELEVANT verses.
So be it.
My "avoidance".
These are IRRELEVANT to the issue, and you ignored MY (relevant) passages. But this is it. The poster has no clue what he's talking about. He doesn't know Greek, he doesn't know how to address all the "Jesuss is God" passages, all he has is his script, and his script means he has to challenge people to address these irrelevant verses.
John 4:26 λέγει αὐτῇ ὁ Ἰησοῦς Ἐγώ εἰμι, ὁ λαλῶν σοι.
Here "egw eimi" doesn't stand alone, it is in apposition to "o lalwn soi" ("the one speaking to you").
John 8:24 εἶπον οὖν ὑμῖν ὅτι ἀποθανεῖσθε ἐν ταῖς ἁμαρτίαις ὑμῶν· ἐὰν γὰρ μὴ πιστεύσητε ὅτι ἐγώ εἰμι, ἀποθανεῖσθε ἐν ταῖς ἁμαρτίαις ὑμῶν.
Jesus had just told them a number of things in v. 23:
"I am from above"
"I am not of this world"
So when He says, "If you do not believe that I am [He], you will die in your sins", he is referring back to those things He ssaid about himself. The CONTEXT determines the rendering here.
Btw, your argument can work both ways. You're right that this text doesn't have "he" after "I am". So it could very well be ANOTHER reference to Jesus being the "I AM" from Ex. 3:14!
John 8:28 εἶπεν οὖν αὐτοῖς ὁ Ἰησοῦς, Ὅταν ὑψώσητε τὸν υἱὸν τοῦ ἀνθρώπου, τότε γνώσεσθε ὅτι ἐγώ εἰμι, καὶ ἀπ’ ἐμαυτοῦ ποιῶ οὐδέν, ἀλλὰ καθὼς ἐδίδαξέ με ὁ πατήρ μου, ταῦτα λαλῶ.
The "I am" here clearly relates back to His identity as "the son of Man", which is why the clarifying addition of "he" is warranted.
And of course, if you knew the FIRST thing about Koine Greek, you would know that.
In all three of your alleged "counterexamples", there is a referent that validates the addition of "He". There is no such referent in John 8:58. So your argument is bogus.
In the meantime, I wonder if you are going to stop RUNNING AWAY from the following?:
Isa. 9:6 For to us a child is born, ... and his name shall be called ... Mighty God,
John 1:1 ... and the Word was God. ... 14 And the Word became flesh ...
John 20:28 Thomas answered him, “My Lord and my God!”
Acts 20:28 ... the church of God, which he obtained with his own blood.
Rom. 9:5 is the Christ, who is God over all, blessed forever. Amen.
Phil. 2:5 ... Christ Jesus, 6 who, though he was in the form of God, ...
Col. 2:9 For in him the whole fullness of deity dwells bodily
Titus 2:13 ... the appearing of the glory of our great God and Savior Jesus Christ,
Heb. 1:8 But of the Son he says, “Your throne, O God, is forever and ever,
2Pet. 1:1 ... the righteousness of our God and Savior Jesus Christ:
So be it.
and avoidance of John 4:26, John 8:24,28 and John 9:9,
My "avoidance".
These are IRRELEVANT to the issue, and you ignored MY (relevant) passages. But this is it. The poster has no clue what he's talking about. He doesn't know Greek, he doesn't know how to address all the "Jesuss is God" passages, all he has is his script, and his script means he has to challenge people to address these irrelevant verses.
John 4:26 λέγει αὐτῇ ὁ Ἰησοῦς Ἐγώ εἰμι, ὁ λαλῶν σοι.
Here "egw eimi" doesn't stand alone, it is in apposition to "o lalwn soi" ("the one speaking to you").
John 8:24 εἶπον οὖν ὑμῖν ὅτι ἀποθανεῖσθε ἐν ταῖς ἁμαρτίαις ὑμῶν· ἐὰν γὰρ μὴ πιστεύσητε ὅτι ἐγώ εἰμι, ἀποθανεῖσθε ἐν ταῖς ἁμαρτίαις ὑμῶν.
Jesus had just told them a number of things in v. 23:
"I am from above"
"I am not of this world"
So when He says, "If you do not believe that I am [He], you will die in your sins", he is referring back to those things He ssaid about himself. The CONTEXT determines the rendering here.
Btw, your argument can work both ways. You're right that this text doesn't have "he" after "I am". So it could very well be ANOTHER reference to Jesus being the "I AM" from Ex. 3:14!
John 8:28 εἶπεν οὖν αὐτοῖς ὁ Ἰησοῦς, Ὅταν ὑψώσητε τὸν υἱὸν τοῦ ἀνθρώπου, τότε γνώσεσθε ὅτι ἐγώ εἰμι, καὶ ἀπ’ ἐμαυτοῦ ποιῶ οὐδέν, ἀλλὰ καθὼς ἐδίδαξέ με ὁ πατήρ μου, ταῦτα λαλῶ.
The "I am" here clearly relates back to His identity as "the son of Man", which is why the clarifying addition of "he" is warranted.
And of course, if you knew the FIRST thing about Koine Greek, you would know that.
In all three of your alleged "counterexamples", there is a referent that validates the addition of "He". There is no such referent in John 8:58. So your argument is bogus.
In the meantime, I wonder if you are going to stop RUNNING AWAY from the following?:
Isa. 9:6 For to us a child is born, ... and his name shall be called ... Mighty God,
John 1:1 ... and the Word was God. ... 14 And the Word became flesh ...
John 20:28 Thomas answered him, “My Lord and my God!”
Acts 20:28 ... the church of God, which he obtained with his own blood.
Rom. 9:5 is the Christ, who is God over all, blessed forever. Amen.
Phil. 2:5 ... Christ Jesus, 6 who, though he was in the form of God, ...
Col. 2:9 For in him the whole fullness of deity dwells bodily
Titus 2:13 ... the appearing of the glory of our great God and Savior Jesus Christ,
Heb. 1:8 But of the Son he says, “Your throne, O God, is forever and ever,
2Pet. 1:1 ... the righteousness of our God and Savior Jesus Christ: