stiggy wiggy
Well-known member
Ruh roh...a ferengi clone...
Why are you STILL evading telling me what I'm supposedly evading?
Ruh roh...a ferengi clone...
Not at all.
This thread was posted to show how uncaring this (alleged) god is and how blinded christians are to this and it's other shortcomings.
AndThe verses he provided say zilch about babies.
You are correct."No one comes to the Father except through me”
means that NO ONE comes to God except through Jesus
but
“I am going to put an end to all people"
doesn't mean that God drowned ALL PEOPLE {minus Noah & co}
EXPLAIN!
And
John 14:6
“Jesus answered, “I am the way and the truth and the life. No one comes to the Father except through me”
says zilch about left handed midgets
Funny, though, how Jesus' use of the term "no one" is understood by stiggy to include ALL PEOPLE
{i.e. of all people, no one, not even left handed midgets can come to the Father except through Jesus
but the term "all people" - as found in the following verse:
“I am going to put an end to all people"
{Genesis 6:13}
is understood, by stiggy, to exclude babies...
I'm not sure that you are fully up to speed hereRed bolding mine. Do you think that this statement will help your case? It won't. It just makes you look like a bully. Dan tried that with me. He doesn't anymore. Anyone who will disrespect their own grandmother by stating things about her that are not true, in a book that they sell, has no credibility with me. I thought that atheists and liberals didn't like bullies. I admit, I could be misinformed on this point.
Misquoting the poster, further demonstrates a losing position.
No such lie was told. Your random stardust needs a serious refill.
WRONG!WRONG! No one would include NO PEOPLE.
Stop being dishonestNoah was a mere baby when he built an ark? LOL
IndeedYes. When Jesus says NO ONE, He means NO ONE. So yes, it includes the entire human race. Never ceases to amaze me how biblical literalists take metaphor and other figurative language literally and very concrete and specific non-figurative language literally in order to get the Bible to say what they what they want it to say.
That said, Jesus does NOT literally "mean to say that there are certain people who can come to God without going through Him". Not in the way that Christians typically use it: Everyone must "believe in the atoning sacrifice of Jesus" or some variation thereof. The real question is what does Jesus mean by "the way and the truth and the life" and "through me"? The context does not support the concept that "the way and the truth and the life" means " "believe in the atoning sacrifice of Jesus".
It is my contention that to consciously and purposefully inflict needless harm upon another is immoral
Furthermore, it is my contention that God consciously and purposefully inflicted the needless harm of drowning upon innocent babies
Stiggy's position has always been twofold:
1. God is morally justified in having drowned babies because He is the creator of said babies and can do with them as He pleases
God could have saved and resurrected those babies WITHOUT causing them the harm of drowning because He is Almighty God!
When God chooses to achieve His end through harmful means it is, by definition, needless
WRONG!
"No one" means that of all the people on earth - not one single one of them can ever come to the Father except through Christ
Except, per your logic, "no one" doesn't mean NO ONE
If there can be exceptions to ALL PEOPLE {such as babies}
The "friend" is stiggy!His friend claimed 'except babies', but that's not in the scripture in this context.
Stiggy is claiming that God did not drown babies in the Great Flood
Sequence of events:There obviously are other exceptions
Sequence of events:
God sees the supposed wickedness of the human race
God decides to wipe the human race from the face of the earth
God decides that there is one man righteous and blameless and faithful enough to save - Noah
Genesis 6:13
"So God said to Noah, “I am going to put an end to all people, for the earth is filled with violence because of them. I am surely going to destroy both them and the earth." "
It is disingenuous to argue that Noah is an exception to ALL PEOPLE
You're rightWRONG! I never claimed that; thus your miserable failure to show where.
God could have saved and resurrected those babies without inflicting the harm of drowning upon themHe may have. I don't care what method He used.
What?So Noah wasn't a person? Was he an armadillo? A giraffe?
So I'm confused...do you care about God's moral character or not?
God told Noah that, of the rest of the human race, He intended to put an end to ALL PEOPLE {which includes babies}
Lots of wadda..shoulda..cuddas concerning how you think God should have responded....but I'll comment on the babies.Furthermore, it is my contention that God consciously and purposefully inflicted the needless harm of drowning upon innocent babies
ABSOLUTELY!!When Jesus says that NO ONE comes to the Father except through Him – does He actually mean NO ONE?