Otherwise you are not willing to discuss your own OP !Gary Mac,
re: "Here is what you posted -- ' Do you account for the lack of a 3rd night by saying that the Messiah was using common figure of speech/colloquial language?['] Does it really make a difference?"
It does for the purpose of this topic.
re: "Is it conducive to the purpose of Jesus instructions for you to be that person of Christ that God sent Jesus for us to be like?"
That's an issue for a different topic.
re: "If you see the need to prove a day..."
For the purpose of this topic, I don't.
re: "Perhaps if you think it is expedient for salvation then explain why.
That would be an issue for a different topic.
Why? the question was to your topic.Gary Mac,
re: "Otherwise you are not willing to discuss your own OP !"
The only discussion that would be applicable to this topic would be with regard to whether or not any provided examples were actually examples. Any other discussions should be addressed in a new topic.
Why? the question was to your topic.
Does it matter? A simple question!The topic is about examples which show that it was common to say that a daytime or a night time would be involved with an event when no part of a daytime or no part of a night time could occur. An answer to your question "Does it really make a difference? " is irrelevant, i.e., not needed in order to provide examples. Start a new topic if you want to discuss different issues.
Correct. The anal obsession with exact time is a strictly Western one and fairly modern (within the last few centuries). If you go overseas, many cultures don't have it and you even see traces of such "sloppiness" in time in attitudes descending from older Western roots. For example, the joke that "manana" (tomorrow) is the busiest day in Spanish cultures.kamaeq,
re: "... the crucifixion took place during daylight prior to the beginning of the Sabbath at nightfall, IOW on Friday."
Do you account for the lack of a 3rd night by saying that the Messiah was using common figure of speech/colloquial language?
You can find this trivially in Jewish sources online. "Day" in Hebrew can refer to the period of light during the day or the entire "night and day" cycle used by the Jews. The use of "day and night" was used to clearly denote a "night and day" (full 24 hours, although without clocks this is based on the changing time of the sunset during the seasons). So, Jesus was saying three days (part of the 24 hour cycle), which includes any part of the indicated 24 hour period. So, before sunset on Friday was day one, Saturday (the Sabbath) was day two, and Sunday (which started at sunset on Saturday by our count) was day three.lamaeq,
So what examples are you using to say that it was common to forecast or say that a daytime or a night time would be involved with an event when no part of a daytime or no part of night time could occur?
the heart of earth, is in Eden, and her core is His Spirit..And again, that someone needs to be someone who believes the crucifixion took place on the 6th day of the week, and who think that the "heart of the earth" refers to the tomb or at the earliest to the moment when the Messiah's spirit left His body, and who tries to explain the lack of a 3rd night by saying He was employing common figure of speech/colloquial usage of the period, and who can provide examples to support the assertion of commonality.
The fall of man brings that new life, hew heaven and earth, a renewed mind, and as long as that old temple stands, Eden, the new one of SPirit cannot be revealed at all.the heart of earth, is in Eden, and her core is His Spirit..
but that earth is not this current earth since the fall...