Which confirms what I posted. He wasn't buried on Friday. So when you say, "Nice post.... but no cigar," and then agree with my post you prove yourself a snarky troll not really interested in conversation.Nice post…..but no cigar.
Indeed the burial took place right before the “high Sabbath” (the 15th of Nisan) which fell on a Thursday that year. This is easily proved by the death of Herod…..being historically noted.
That is a false dichotomy. The "metaphor" does not exclude the co-existence of the grave. Both can be true simultaneously. And it's not a metaphor; it is an idiom. He know the Messiah had to go to the grave because of prior OT prophesies.The mistake is always made by assuming that (Matthew 12:40) refers to the tomb. It refers to His time in the “Heart of the Earth” which is a metaphor…..not an actual, physical location. It began early morning of the 14th when He became subject to the will of mankind after His arrest in the garden.
Will You perform wonders for the dead? Will the departed spirits rise and praise You? Selah. Will Your lovingkindness be declared in the grave, Your faithfulness in Abaddon? Will Your wonders be made known in the darkness? And Your righteousness in the land of forgetfulness?
He was oppressed and he was afflicted, yet he did not open his mouth; like a lamb that is led to slaughter, and like a sheep that is silent before its shearers, so he did not open his mouth. By oppression and judgment he was taken away; and as for his generation, who considered that He was cut off out of the land of the living for the transgression of my people, to whom the stroke was due? His grave was assigned with wicked men, Yet He was with a rich man in His death, Because He had done no violence, Nor was there any deceit in His mouth.
The Hebrew root for both texts is "qeber." (H6913). It means grave. The term used in Isaiah ("qibrow") is "grave," "sepulcher" or "tomb." Not only did he have a grave assigned with the wicked, but he was cut off from the living. The "heart of the earth" and the grave or tomb are not mutually exclusive conditions. Both are simultaneously true.
Are you suggesting the idom "heart of the earth" means or is otherwise synonymous with "under the command and control of evil mankind"? If so, how did you arrive at that interpretation? Please be detailed and specific with your explanation.It would end 72 hours later on the 17th…….early on the Sabbath morning before sunrise when he would be no longer under the command and control of evil mankind.
No, they do not. The Greek transliterated states, "after the sabbaton it being dawn toward the first of the sabbaton" (Mt. 28:1). In other words, one sabbath is pitted against another chronologically, after one the first of another started. So while your review of the Jewish sabbaths is correct,All four gospels say He arose on the “First of the Sabbaths” (plural)
Your summary of the English is not. Young's didn't get it correct. None of them do. It's sad, because in modern times we have a much greater understanding of the Jewish roots in Christendom. There's no reason our translations couldn't say "after the Sabbath... the first day of the Sabbath" and be understood.in the Greek language which is the first Sabbath in the count of the Omer (Leviticus 23:15). Any first century Hebrew could explain what the “first of the Sabbaths“ meant.
I'm not really seeing how your explanation and mine contradict. It appears you're just being argumentative when you could have been affirming. I provided two options, one with a Wednesday Passover, and another with a Thursday Passover. You could have easily affirmed the Wednesday marking and explained why you think that more veracious instead of, "Nice post... but no cigar," especially since your own post is also flawed. I have no problem with a Wednesday mark. I completely agree the Sabbaths in question are not our Saturday, but Sabbaths pertaining to the Jewish religious rituals and lunar calendar.........A very good literal Greek New Testament “Young’s Literal” will always translate……”first day of the week” as……” First of the Sabbaths“(plural). Of course this does not agree with the Catholic Church opinion…….but it’s accurate.
And I explained how this happened. The RCC made a doctrinal decision away from setting Good Friday to coordinate with the Jewish calendar. Why are you being divisive and contrary when agreement is plainly available? Was this op intended as an unstated rag on RCCism?First of the Sabbaths“ (plural). Of course this does not agree with the Catholic Church opinion…….but it’s accurate.
Yes, it is. But it is not well executed.….but it’s accurate.
Behold, how good and how pleasant it is For brothers to live together in unity!
Let no unwholesome word proceed from your mouth, but only such a word as is good for edification according to the need of the moment, so that it will give grace to those who hear.