Then provide the scripture where he had the name Jesus before he ever came into this world? Until you can he was only known by Jesus when Joseph named him Jesus. The scripture you provide has to clearly have him being referred to as Jesus and not a term you want it to mean he was known as Jesus before the Word became flesh?
LOL! It's too late for you to protest any more, Nathan - The "provision" is already in the very verse you yourself referred to. The verse clearly says and shows that He had the name "Jesus" BEFORE He was ever born! Before He ever came into this world as God Incarnate, that was His name! That means that HE CHOSE His own name - BEFORE He was born! He knew what His name would be BEFORE He came. That was WHY the angel spoke to Joseph regarding the name "Jesus". It had already been determined beforehand. And that means that there IS
documentation of Jesus Christ before He was born. The words of the angel prove that. Again - Thanks for referring to that verse! By doing so, you yourself have provided and proven the documentation of Jesus Christ before He was born. Way to go!
As for John 1:2 - Oh, yes, it most certainly, most definitely DOES refer to Jesus Christ. It can't refer to anyone else - No one else is referred to! In John 1:1 there are just two Persons referred to - the Word and God And the verse says The Word was God. And The "Word" who is none other than Jesus Christ became flesh. Verse 14 shows and proves that irrefutably. Verse 14 can't possibly refer to anyone else. Why? Because this is the Gospel (The Good News of Jesus Christ) written by the Apostle John. Case closed.
Oh, and the word "with" in John 1:1? Thanks for bringing that up! That word in the Greek means a LOT more than what you provided. Here is what noted Greek scholar A.T. Robertson writes about it:
(προς τον θεον). Though existing eternally with God the Logos was in perfect fellowship with God. Προς with the accusative presents a plane of equality and intimacy, face to face with each other."
The Expanded Bible puts it this way: In the beginning (remember - that means before Creation itself
)·there was the Word [the Word already existed; the Word refers to Christ, God’s revelation of himself]. The Word was ·with [in the presence of; in intimate relationship with] God [ the Father], and the Word was [fully] God.
Going on - Robertson writes:
Verse 2 The same
(ουτος). "This one," the Logos of verse John 1:1 (NAS) repeated for clarity, characteristic of John's style. He links together into one phrase two of the ideas already stated separately, "in the beginning He was with God," "afterwards in time He came to be with man" (Marcus Dods). Thus John clearly states of the Logos Pre-existence before Incarnation, Personality, Deity.
Now - Nathan - Let's get VERY real here: Although you can and probably will deny (and likely run away from) the above, you are NOT ANYWHERE NEAR the scholarship of A.T. Robertson. And so your denial means absolutely nothing. It is totally without any merit or value at all.