after you denied what it says.
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Did Jesus create the angels?
- Thread starter jamesh
- Start date
And I will stick with my statement that the Word had his beginning at John 1 in the beginning and since he had his beginning in the beginning and it says the Word was God in the beginning, then the Word could have only have been God in the beginning. You have to prove the Word was before the beginning as the Word or Jesus or the Son of God clearly.
Then why does the Father call His Son ( Jesus Christ ) " O God " in Hebrews 1:8, just after all His created angels WORSHIPED Him in verse 6?!!! Correct answer because He ( Pre-Carnate Jesus Christ ) " was God " the Word of John 1:1, who created all thing in John 1:3/Col.1:16 before He became " Flesh " ( incarnate as Jesus Christ the God-Man ) in John 1:14! Case closed!No you ignore the evidence and the evidence says Jesus created nothing and I have proven that many times and then you all act as if it was not explained. The him at John 1:4 can not be Jesus because the life in the him was Jesus and that leaves only one left who can be the him "the creator" and that is the Father, then at col. 1: 12-14 the subject is the Father and at vs 15 it says he is an image of the invisible God or the Father. The subject stays the Father and he is an image of the Father or the subject. Also look up the word "of" in the dictionary and the subject is always to the right of the word "of".
How many times does it have to be explained to you since the life in the him was Jesus, then the him who is the creator could not have been Jesus too and that leaves only the Father who is the him and is the creator?Then why does the Father call His Son ( Jesus Christ ) " O God " in Hebrews 1:8, just after all His created angels WORSHIPED Him in verse 6?!!! Correct answer because He ( Pre-Carnate Jesus Christ ) " was God " the Word of John 1:1, who created all thing in John 1:3/Col.1:16 before He became " Flesh " ( incarnate as Jesus Christ the God-Man ) in John 1:14! Case closed!
Otherwise prove how the life in the him was Jesus and the him was Jesus too?
No vs 14 does not refer to Jesus because starting at vs 12 we give thanks to the Father because he delivered us from the power of darkness and conveyed us into the kingdom of the Son of his love in whom we have redemption through his blood and the forgiveness of sins. It is talking about what the Father did. If it was not for the Father there never would have been a Son whose blood would be shed on our behalf correct?I am not the one who denied and then affirmed Colossians 1:14 refers to Jesus.
Type in whom on a search engine and the Merriam Webster says that whom would be the object and the who, who is doing that or the one who initiated it is the subject. You can try https://www.merriam-webster vs 14 refers to the Father as the subject and Jesus who is the whom is the object.Colossians 1:14 refers to Jesus.
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Don't need to because you already denied and then confirmed Colossians 1:14 refers to Jesus.Type in whom on a search engine and the Merriam Webster says
You will not at least admit to looking up the definition of whom because the definition says the whom is the object and the other one is the subject. Col. 1:14 refers to the Father and there is no doubt about that.Don't need to because you already denied and then confirmed Colossians 1:14 refers to Jesus.
You will not at least admit to looking up the definition
No need to when you already contradicted yourself.
Just admit defeat because you know there is no logical definition that will say the whom is the subject. Again the Father is the subject at col. 1:14 and then at 1:15 and that means the by him, through him and the for him is referring to the Father and not Jesus.No need to when you already contradicted yourself.
you contradicted yourself.Just admit defeat because you know
No I did not and you know you have no defense that you can not claim with documented evidence that the whom (Jesus) at col. 1:14 refers to Jesus as the subject. Instead using documented evidence you would have to admit the subject there is the Father .you contradicted yourself.
Post 572No I did not
Post 572 proves my point.Post 572
That it does!Post 572 proves my point.
I am an inactive jw.
Why?
They make you anti social as you can only relate to jws , while they galivant around and have friends.Why?
They make you anti social as you can only relate to jws , while they galivant around and have friends.
I see.
Are you 100% on board with their doctrinal beliefs?
No.I see.
Are you 100% on board with their doctrinal beliefs?
Which ones do you think they are in error?
FYI God the Word of John 1:1 is the Creator as per John 1:3/Col.1:16 and Yes indeed God the Word of John 1:1 BECAME Flesh as Jesus Christ in John 1:14! So case closed!How many times does it have to be explained to you since the life in the him was Jesus, then the him who is the creator could not have been Jesus too and that leaves only the Father who is the him and is the creator?
Otherwise prove how the life in the him was Jesus and the him was Jesus too?