It is amazing I just proved Jesus was not the creator at John 1 and col. 1 and you all act as if he was without providing evidence like I provided the required evidence. Also creation happened before the Word became flesh as Jesus as you note above and thus Jesus had nothing to do with creation and only the Word had anything to do with creation through God.
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Did Jesus create the angels?
- Thread starter jamesh
- Start date
It is amazing
Why are you dodging the question I asked you in post 599?
And precarnate Jesus Christ " was God " the Word of John 1:1 before He became " Flesh " ( Incarnate ) as the God-Man then called Jesus Christ in John 1:14! So yes indeed when He " Was God " the Word He made/created ALL things as per John 1:3/Col.1:16! Case closed on your Twisted view ( 2 Peter 3:16 ) that He ( the Word incarnate as Jesus Christ ) is NOT God as well as a Man ( God-Man ), but just a man only!It is amazing I just proved Jesus was not the creator at John 1 and col. 1 and you all act as if he was without providing evidence like I provided the required evidence. Also creation happened before the Word became flesh as Jesus as you note above and thus Jesus had nothing to do with creation and only the Word had anything to do with creation through God.
Amazing I prove Jesus could not have created anything and they all come back without concrete proof and say he did. Without proof the Word was Jesus before the Word became flesh you have nothing.And precarnate Jesus Christ " was God " the Word of John 1:1 before He became " Flesh " ( Incarnate ) as the God-Man then called Jesus Christ in John 1:14! So yes indeed when He " Was God " the Word He made/created ALL things as per John 1:3/Col.1:16! Case closed on your Twisted view ( 2 Peter 3:16 ) that He ( the Word incarnate as Jesus Christ ) is NOT God as well as a Man ( God-Man ), but just a man only!
To start with 1914 and they isolate everyone from contact with anyone except for jws while they are able to contact and be friends with the people they say not to contact.Which ones do you think they are in error?
FYI again John 1:1 says " the WORD was God" ( Precarnate Jesus Christ ) , who made/created ALL things as per John 1:3/Col.1:16! Then He " who was God " the Word ( Precarnate Jesus Christ ) in John 1:1 became " Flesh " ( Incarnate - God the Word in the Flesh or God-Man ) in John 1:14! And yes the WORD was Pre-carnate Jesus Christ as His name( after His incarnation and resurrection ) is still called " the WORD of God " in Rev.19:13 at His Post Trib. return to REIGN for 1000 years ( Rev.20:4-6 )! Case closed!Amazing I prove Jesus could not have created anything and they all come back without concrete proof and say he did. Without proof the Word was Jesus before the Word became flesh you have nothing.
How many times do you have to be told to prove that the Word was Jesus at the time by supplying evidence that states there was one named Jesus before the Word became flesh? For a fact there was the Word and God. And I have proven many times that Jesus (the Word) created nothing and you all just say he did without proof.FYI again John 1:1 says " the WORD was God" ( Precarnate Jesus Christ ) , who made/created ALL things as per John 1:3/Col.1:16! Then He " who was God " the Word ( Precarnate Jesus Christ ) in John 1:1 became " Flesh " ( Incarnate - God the Word in the Flesh or God-Man ) in John 1:14! And yes the WORD was Pre-carnate Jesus Christ as His name( after His incarnation and resurrection ) is still called " the WORD of God " in Rev.19:13 at His Post Trib. return to REIGN for 1000 years ( Rev.20:4-6 )! Case closed!
FYI again the Proof that He ( Pre-carnate Jesus Christ called the Word in John 1:1, who " was God " ) made/created All things before He became incarnate ( FLESH or God in the Flesh ) in John 1:14 is CLEARLY found in John 1:3/Col.1:16! Case closed!How many times do you have to be told to prove that the Word was Jesus at the time by supplying evidence that states there was one named Jesus before the Word became flesh? For a fact there was the Word and God. And I have proven many times that Jesus (the Word) created nothing and you all just say he did without proof.
How many times must those AS IS Quoted scriptures be posted before you realize that Jesus Christ is both " God the Word " of John 1:1 and Man ( the flesh that God the Word of John 1:1 became in John 1:14?!!! God the Father in Heb.1:8 calls Him " O God "! Case closed on your Twisted view ( 2 Peter 3:16 ) of these scriptures!How many times do you have to be told to prove that the Word was Jesus at the time by supplying evidence that states there was one named Jesus before the Word became flesh? For a fact there was the Word and God. And I have proven many times that Jesus (the Word) created nothing and you all just say he did without proof.
How many times does it have to be proven that the Father and not Jesus creates in John 1 and that the Word became flesh at John 1:14 and only then was there a documented Jesus and before that there was only God and the Word?How many times must those AS IS Quoted scriptures be posted before you realize that Jesus Christ is both " God the Word " of John 1:1 and Man ( the flesh that God the Word of John 1:1 became in John 1:14?!!! God the Father in Heb.1:8 calls Him " O God "! Case closed on your Twisted view ( 2 Peter 3:16 ) of these scriptures!
I asked you for proof that there is one named Jesus before the Word became flesh and not for you to say Jesus was called the Word in John 1?FYI again the Proof that He ( Pre-carnate Jesus Christ called the Word in John 1:1, who " was God " ) made/created All things before He became incarnate ( FLESH or God in the Flesh ) in John 1:14 is CLEARLY found in John 1:3/Col.1:16! Case closed!
FYI the TRINITY Creates THROUGH & By Pre-carnate Jesus Christ as the WORD in John 1:1 as per John 1:3 and Col.1:16! So case closed on your Twisted say so ( 2 Peter 3:16 ) of these posted AS IS scriptures that Rebukes your say so as per 2 Tim.3:16!How many times does it have to be proven that the Father and not Jesus creates in John 1 and that the Word became flesh at John 1:14 and only then was there a documented Jesus and before that there was only God and the Word?
FYI the WORD Was Precarnate Jesus Christ as John 1:1 & John 1:14 CLEARLY shows us that He as the WORD BECAME Incarnate in John 1:14! John 1:14 does not mention Jesus Christ either, BUT from All the scriptures on the SAME Topic, We know for a FACT it is Jesus Christ ( Who Name is Also the WORD as Proven in Rev.19:13 ) who became FLESH in John 1:14! Thus Case closed!I asked you for proof that there is one named Jesus before the Word became flesh and not for you to say Jesus was called the Word in John 1?
No it does not show he (Jesus) became the Word and it clearly says the Word became flesh (Jesus). Again before the Word became flesh provide documentation that there was one named Jesus?FYI the WORD Was Precarnate Jesus Christ as John 1:1 & John 1:14 CLEARLY shows us that He as the WORD BECAME Incarnate in John 1:14! John 1:14 does not mention Jesus Christ either, BUT from All the scriptures on the SAME Topic, We know for a FACT it is Jesus Christ ( Who Name is Also the WORD as Proven in Rev.19:13 ) who became FLESH in John 1:14! Thus Case closed!
There was no Jesus when creation happened and there was just the Word and God like it says. In order for you to be correct the Word would have to be known by both Jesus and the Word. You should say the Word was the pre-carnate one who would be Jesus when the Word became flesh.FYI the TRINITY Creates THROUGH & By Pre-carnate Jesus Christ as the WORD in John 1:1 as per John 1:3 and Col.1:16! So case closed on your Twisted say so ( 2 Peter 3:16 ) of these posted AS IS scriptures that Rebukes your say so as per 2 Tim.3:16!
In order for you to be correct you have to say the precarnate Word (Jesus) created all things and leave the name Jesus out of the equation until after the Word became flesh.FYI again John 1:1 says " the WORD was God" ( Precarnate Jesus Christ ) , who made/created ALL things as per John 1:3/Col.1:16! Then He " who was God " the Word ( Precarnate Jesus Christ ) in John 1:1 became " Flesh " ( Incarnate - God the Word in the Flesh or God-Man ) in John 1:14! And yes the WORD was Pre-carnate Jesus Christ as His name( after His incarnation and resurrection ) is still called " the WORD of God " in Rev.19:13 at His Post Trib. return to REIGN for 1000 years ( Rev.20:4-6 )! Case closed!
FYI again those AS IS posted scriptures ( John 1:1+14 ) say " the Word was God " and then BECAME Incarnate ( FLESH ) as Jesus Christ and Rev.19:13 Shows us that Pre-carnate Jesus Christ " was God " the Word in John 1:1 as His NAME is also called " the WORD " ! Then God His Father calls Hin " O God " in Heb.1:8! CASE Closed on your Twisted view ( 2 Peter 3:16 ) that the Real Jesus Christ in not also " God " the former Word in John 1:1, Through/By whom All things were made/created as per John 1:3/Col.1:16! !No it does not show he (Jesus) became the Word and it clearly says the Word became flesh (Jesus). Again before the Word became flesh provide documentation that there was one named Jesus?
You are proving my point that only after he became incarnate (flesh) was there one known as Jesus. No as has been proven he (the Word) created nothing at col. 1 because in every other case like when it says humans were made in the image of God they all say God is the subject there, but when it says he is the image of the invisible God you all then say the he is the subject. Listen you can not say in this one case only the he is the subject and in all the other cases God is the subject when it has of God at the endFYI again those AS IS posted scriptures ( John 1:1+14 ) say " the Word was God " and then BECAME Incarnate ( FLESH ) as Jesus Christ and Rev.19:13 Shows us that Pre-carnate Jesus Christ " was God " the Word in John 1:1 as His NAME is also called " the WORD " ! Then God His Father calls Hin " O God " in Heb.1:8! CASE Closed on your Twisted view ( 2 Peter 3:16 ) that the Real Jesus Christ in not also " God " the former Word in John 1:1, Through/By whom All things were made/created as per John 1:3/Col.1:16! !
O yes I can because He is Both God and Man as per John 1:1+14 and that is EXACTLY why God His Father can call ONLY that man ( Jesus Christ His ONLY Begotten Son ) " O God " in Hebrews 1:8! Case closed!You are proving my point that only after he became incarnate (flesh) was there one known as Jesus. No as has been proven he (the Word) created nothing at col. 1 because in every other case like when it says humans were made in the image of God they all say God is the subject there, but when it says he is the image of the invisible God you all then say the he is the subject. Listen you can not say in this one case only the he is the subject and in all the other cases God is the subject when it has of God at the end
No I don't because He " was God " in John 1:1 before He became God-Man in John 1:14! Case closed!In order for you to be correct you have to say the precarnate Word (Jesus) created all things and leave the name Jesus out of the equation until after the Word became flesh.