Did Jesus teach he was GOD himself?

101G

Well-known member
To All,
the Lord Jesus is God almighty, EQUALLY SHARED in flesh.. Isaiah 35:4 "Say to them that are of a fearful heart, Be strong, fear not: behold, your God will come with vengeance, even God with a recompence; he will come and save you."

are U saved? then God came. Luke 19:10 "For the Son of man is come to seek and to save that which was lost."

PICJAG, 101G.
 

rod.ney

Well-known member
You do know that the backdrop for this, Isaiah 7, doesn't support any of this? And you do know that the Father is specifically called out as Creator and God in Tanakh, i.e., Deut 32:6. Jesus flat out died which contradicts anything related to the living God.

You do know that women retain part of their father's DNA in theirs as well? And you do know that overshadowed doesn't mean impregnate in the NT?

Gen 1:26 merely speaks of God speaking to nature in creating mankind. In your thinking above, you'd have gods involved in creation, which I don't think you want to admit to. ;)

Context determines the meaning of words and Elo-him is definitely singular in Genesis 1:26-27. Have you heard of Dr. Michael Heiser from Logos bible software? Check out what he has to say about the morphology of elohim and how context determines the meaning.

...
As noted above, elohim is morphologically plural. Morphology refers to the "shape" or construction of a word - its form. As far as meaning, though, elohim can be either singular or plural depending on context. As anyone who has taken a language can testify, meaning is determined by context, not by a list of glosses in a dictionary (which are only OPTIONS – the translator must look to context for accuracy).
More specifically, the meaning of any occurrence of elohim must be discerned in three ways:

A. Grammatical indications elsewhere in the text that help to determine if a singular or plural meaning is meant.
B. Grammatical rules in Hebrew that are true in the language as a whole.
C. Historical / Logical context.

To illustrate, consider words in English such as:
"deer", "sheep", "fish" - the point is you need other words to help you tell if one or more than one of these animals is meant. Sometimes these other words are verbs that help you tell. Compare the two examples::

1) "The sheep is lost" - the word "is" is a singular verb (It goes with a singular subject; one wouldn't say, for example, "I are lost" - you would use a verb that goes with the singular subject ("I am lost").

2) "The sheep are lost" - the word "are" is a plural verb (again, another word next to our noun "sheep" tells us in this case that plural sheep are meant.

All of this is just basic grammar - and every language has grammar. Biblical Hebrew has its own ways of telling us if elohim means ONE person or many gods. It matches the noun elohim to singular or plural verbs, or with singular or plural pronouns (to use "sheep" again as an example: "Those sheep are white". [Or using YHWH with Elo-him since YHWH is a singular proper noun - my insertion] ). The word "those" is what's called a demonstrative pronoun - it automatically tells us that sheep in this sentence is meant to be understood as a plural.
FYI again I posted those scriptures about God the Word in John 1:1 becoming incarnate ( the Flesh of John 1:14 ) as the God-Man then called Jesus Christ! Thus case closed on your WRONG CONTEXT of John 1:1+14 in conjunction with Matt.1:20 & Luke 1:32-35!
 

Jewjitzu

Well-known member
To All,
the Lord Jesus is God almighty, EQUALLY SHARED in flesh.. Isaiah 35:4 "Say to them that are of a fearful heart, Be strong, fear not: behold, your God will come with vengeance, even God with a recompence; he will come and save you."

are U saved? then God came. Luke 19:10 "For the Son of man is come to seek and to save that which was lost."

PICJAG, 101G.
No mention of Jesus in Isaiah.
 

Jewjitzu

Well-known member
FYI again I posted those scriptures about God the Word in John 1:1
The Father spoke.

becoming incarnate ( the Flesh of John 1:14 ) as the God-Man then called Jesus Christ!
Oh, I see. Greek and Roman mythology.

Thus case closed on your WRONG CONTEXT of John 1:1+14 in conjunction with Matt.1:20 & Luke 1:32-35!
The case was closed when he was created, bled and died.
 

DoctrinesofGraceBapt

Well-known member
I've now told you countless times the limited nature of my response. I'm now just ignoring these rabbit trails.

You responding to Rod.ney said:

Did Rodney say he held to God having DNA? Or are you just making accusations?

Arrogance refusing correction.

One expressing his close-mindedness.

Wow, you are that close-minded?

Sir, the above is an expression of your ignorance of Trinitarianism. Nothing more, nothing less. Moving on.
Then move on. I guess the new Adam didn't work out for you, and the incarnation never happened. Se la vi. ;)

No, you are just very, very confused. You blinded yourself to the difference between an argument for a position as opposed to a statement of a position, and you refuse to correct bad arguments. It makes me glad I'm not as myopic as you are.

God Bless
 

DoctrinesofGraceBapt

Well-known member
To All,
the Lord Jesus is God almighty, EQUALLY SHARED in flesh.. Isaiah 35:4 "Say to them that are of a fearful heart, Be strong, fear not: behold, your God will come with vengeance, even God with a recompence; he will come and save you."
are U saved? then God came. Luke 19:10 "For the Son of man is come to seek and to save that which was lost.
PICJAG, 101G.
No mention of Jesus in Isaiah.
FYI again I posted those scriptures about God the Word in John 1:1
The Father spoke.
rod.ney said:
becoming incarnate ( the Flesh of John 1:14 ) as the God-Man then called Jesus Christ!
Oh, I see. Greek and Roman mythology.
rod.ney said:
Thus case closed on your WRONG CONTEXT of John 1:1+14 in conjunction with Matt.1:20 & Luke 1:32-35!
The case was closed when he was created, bled and died.

Vacuous trolling. One would think a Jew would make meaningful replies.
 

101G

Well-known member
No mention of Jesus in Isaiah
read the next few verses, Isaiah 35:5 " Then the eyes of the blind shall be opened, and the ears of the deaf shall be unstopped."

Isaiah 35:6 " Then shall the lame man leap as an hart, and the tongue of the dumb sing: for in the wilderness shall waters break out, and streams in the desert."

who did those things? answer the Lord Jesus.

PICJAG, 101G.
 

Jewjitzu

Well-known member
read the next few verses, Isaiah 35:5 " Then the eyes of the blind shall be opened, and the ears of the deaf shall be unstopped."

Isaiah 35:6 " Then shall the lame man leap as an hart, and the tongue of the dumb sing: for in the wilderness shall waters break out, and streams in the desert."

who did those things? answer the Lord Jesus.

PICJAG, 101G.
Really? Did he open your eyes to Isaiah 41:4?
 

rod.ney

Well-known member
The Father spoke.


Oh, I see. Greek and Roman mythology.


The case was closed when he was created, bled and died.
#1 - So did God the Word & God the Holy Spirit! The " US & Our " ( FSHS of Matt.28:19 or Father, Word, & Holy Ghost of 1 John 5:7 in the KJV of the Holy Bible ) of Gen.1:26 were involved with the creation of man! ------------------ #2 - No you don't see because what that mythology was about were HALF God & Half Man! Jesus Christ is both FULLY God ( the Word of John 1:1 ) and FULLY Human as a Man ( the Flesh of John 1:14 )! Thus God in the Flesh ( Incarnate - God-Man ) and NOT Half God & Half Man! Case closed! ---------- #3 - The case was closed on your WRONG view ( half God & half man - Greek mythology ) when I posted John 1:1+14 in fulfillment of Isaiah 9:6 ( Fully Mighty God in the Flesh )! He is " God with us " ( Immanuel as per Matt.1:23 in conjunction with Isaiah 7:14, a dual prophesy - Northern Kingdom of Israel fell + the birth of Jesus Christ )! Case closed!
 
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rod.ney

Well-known member
No mention of Jesus in Isaiah.
FYI, Isaiah mentions that child ( Jesus Christ ) to be born and is " Mighty God " in Isaiah 9:6! So much for your say so about what Isaiah mentions! Isaiah also mentioned " Immanuel " in a dual prophecy, which Matt.1:23 calls Jesus Christ! Daniel's 70 sevens prophecy mentions His ( the Messiah - Jesus Christ ) getting cut off ( crucifixion ) in Dan.9:24-26! He ( the resurrected Christ in His Supernatural Flesh & bone body of Luke 24:39 ) will return Rev.19:14-21 & 20:1-6 in conjunction with Zech.14:4-16 ) to be worshiped as King of kings in Jerusalem, by the survivors ( verse 16 ) of the Great Trib. of Dan.9:27! Case closed!
 
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Jewjitzu

Well-known member
#1 - So did God the Word & God the Holy Spirit! The " US & Our " ( FSHS of Matt.28:19 or Father, Word, & Holy Ghost of 1 John 5:7 in the KJV of the Holy Bible ) of Gen.1:26 were involved with the creation of man! ------------------ #2 - No you don't see because what that mythology was about were HALF God & Half Man! Jesus Christ is both FULLY God ( the Word of John 1:1 ) and FULLY Human as a Man ( the Flesh of John 1:14 )! Thus God in the Flesh ( Incarnate - God-Man ) and NOT Half God & Half Man! Case closed! ---------- #3 - The case was closed on your WRONG view ( half God & half man - Greek mythology ) when I posted John 1:1+14 in fulfillment of Isaiah 9:6 ( Fully Mighty God in the Flesh )! He is " God with us " ( Immanuel as per Matt.1:23 in conjunction with Isaiah 7:14, a dual prophesy - Northern Kingdom of Israel fell + the birth of Jesus Christ )! Case closed!
I've answered for all of this.

There is no dual prophecy with Isaiah 7:14. The context doesn't fit for Jesus, nor was Israel in the process of being invaded.

Isaiah 9:6 is specific to Hezekiah and searches on the zeal of the Lord will prove it. ;)

Jesus will bend his knees at the true God.
 

Jewjitzu

Well-known member
FYI, Isaiah mentions that child ( Jesus Christ ) to be born and is " Mighty God " in Isaiah 9:6!
Search the NT and you'll find no mention of the names in association with Jesus. ;)

So much for your say so about what Isaiah mentions! Isaiah also mentioned " Immanuel " in a dual prophecy, which Matt.1:23 calls Jesus Christ! Daniel's 70 sevens prophecy mentions His ( the Messiah - Jesus Christ ) getting cut off ( crucifixion ) in Dan.9:24-26!
Jesus was never called Immanuel in his lifetime. Though Israel does fit that bill in Zechariah 8:23. Grab my hem. ;)

Throughout the NT there is zero reference to Daniel 9 and Jesus' fulfillment of it, nor does Jesus reference it for himself. ;)

He ( the resurrected Christ in His Supernatural Flesh & bone body of Luke 24:39 ) will return Rev.19:14-21 & 20:1-6 in conjunction with Zech.14:4-16 ) to be worshiped as King of kings in Jerusalem, by the survivors ( verse 16 ) of the Great Trib. of Dan.9:27! Case closed!
You have zero proof for Zechariah 14, only wishful thinking. We do know Jesus has knees and will bow to the true God. ;)
 

rod.ney

Well-known member
I've answered for all of this.

There is no dual prophecy with Isaiah 7:14. The context doesn't fit for Jesus, nor was Israel in the process of being invaded.

Isaiah 9:6 is specific to Hezekiah and searches on the zeal of the Lord will prove it. ;)

Jesus will bend his knees at the true God.
#1- Yes indeed you answered with your WRONG say so ( man's word as OPPOSED to GOD Word ) that CONTRADICTS ( 2 Peter 3:16 ) those posted scriptures that rebukes your say so as per 2 Tim.3:16! --------------- #2 - WRONG again! --------------- #3 - Yes indeed Jesus will prove what I stated as FACT when it is your JUDGMENT time! If you continue to reject Him as your LORD & Savior then you will go before the GWTJ of Rev.20:11-15 for the unsaved, instead of BEMA seat of 2 Cor.5:10, which is for the saved as per 1 Cor.3:11-15------------------- #4 - Jesus is God-Man as per John 1:1+14! Even God the Father calls Him " O God " in Heb.1:8, just after all the angels that were created Through/By Him ( as per John 1:3/Col.1:16 ), WORSHIPED Him in verse 6! Case closed!
 

rod.ney

Well-known member
Search the NT and you'll find no mention of the names in association with Jesus. ;)


Jesus was never called Immanuel in his lifetime. Though Israel does fit that bill in Zechariah 8:23. Grab my hem. ;)

Throughout the NT there is zero reference to Daniel 9 and Jesus' fulfillment of it, nor does Jesus reference it for himself. ;)


You have zero proof for Zechariah 14, only wishful thinking. We do know Jesus has knees and will bow to the true God. ;)
#1 - 100% Wrong again! ----------------------- #2 - Matt.1:23 is GOD's say so that refutes you on that! --------------- #3 - 100% Wrong again! ------------------- #4 - And yet again 100% Wrong! When Jesus returns ( Rev.19:11-21 & 20:1-6 ) in His Supernatural Flesh & Bone body, the Mount. of Olives will split when His feet touches down upon it ( Zec.14:4 )! 2 Tim.3:16 rebukes you about those scriptures in Zech,14:4-16! Case closed!
 

rod.ney

Well-known member
Search the NT and you'll find no mention of the names in association with Jesus. ;)


Jesus was never called Immanuel in his lifetime. Though Israel does fit that bill in Zechariah 8:23. Grab my hem. ;)

Throughout the NT there is zero reference to Daniel 9 and Jesus' fulfillment of it, nor does Jesus reference it for himself. ;)


You have zero proof for Zechariah 14, only wishful thinking. We do know Jesus has knees and will bow to the true God. ;)
FYI again the mention in the NT is in Matt.1:23 for #1&2! FYI - Matt.24:15 is the NT scripture that references Daniel chapter 9! ( Got you on that one! And for #4, it is CLEARLY you that has no Proof to refute what I CORRECTLY posted about the return of Jesus Christ in Rev.19:11-21 & 20:1-6 in conjunction with Zech.14:4-16! Case closed! Who do you think, feet will cause the Mt. of olives to split if Not Jesus?!!!!!! Can't wait to see that twisting ( 2 Peter 3:16 ) of God's scriptures!
 

Jewjitzu

Well-known member
#1- Yes indeed you answered with your WRONG say so ( man's word as OPPOSED to GOD Word ) that CONTRADICTS ( 2 Peter 3:16 ) those posted scriptures that rebukes your say so as per 2 Tim.3:16! --------------- #2 - WRONG again! --------------- #3 - Yes indeed Jesus will prove what I stated as FACT when it is your JUDGMENT time! If you continue to reject Him as your LORD & Savior then you will go before the GWTJ of Rev.20:11-15 for the unsaved, instead of BEMA seat of 2 Cor.5:10, which is for the saved as per 1 Cor.3:11-15------------------- #4 - Jesus is God-Man as per John 1:1+14! Even God the Father calls Him " O God " in Heb.1:8, just after all the angels that were created Through/By Him ( as per John 1:3/Col.1:16 ), WORSHIPED Him in verse 6! Case closed!
What I've replied stands and contradicts the NT.

Of most importance are Jesus' knees and his bowing in the future. ;)
 

Jewjitzu

Well-known member
#1 - 100% Wrong again! ----------------------- #2 - Matt.1:23 is GOD's say so that refutes you on that! --------------- #3 - 100% Wrong again! ------------------- #4 - And yet again 100% Wrong! When Jesus returns ( Rev.19:11-21 & 20:1-6 ) in His Supernatural Flesh & Bone body, the Mount. of Olives will split when His feet touches down upon it ( Zec.14:4 )! 2 Tim.3:16 rebukes you about those scriptures in Zech,14:4-16! Case closed!
Again, you strike out. You're not doing very well. ;)
 

Jewjitzu

Well-known member
FYI again the mention in the NT is in Matt.1:23 for #1&2! FYI - Matt.24:15 is the NT scripture that references Daniel chapter 9! ( Got you on that one! And for #4, it is CLEARLY you that has no Proof to refute what I CORRECTLY posted about the return of Jesus Christ in Rev.19:11-21 & 20:1-6 in conjunction with Zech.14:4-16! Case closed! Who do you think, feet will cause the Mt. of olives to split if Not Jesus?!!!!!! Can't wait to see that twisting ( 2 Peter 3:16 ) of God's scriptures!
Sorry, neither Jesus refers to himself as the anointed in Daniel 9, and neither does the NT.

Jesus hasn't fulfilled anything. No twisting required. ;)

Maybe go bowling and try to hit something 🤔?
 
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