Did Jesus teach he was GOD himself?

Newbirth

Well-known member
For once in your life I agree with you, Jesus did not teach He was God, instead He proved He was God. Here, I'll give you one example out of many. Luke 5: 20-24, "And seeing their faith, He/Jesus said, Friend, your sins are forgiven." Vs21, "And the Scribes and the Pharisees began to reason, saying, Who is this man who speaks blasphemies? Who can forgive sins but God alone."
This is not interpreted correctly, he spoke like that, as he knew that this person's sin were being forgiven by GOD, but, NOT BY HIM!! How's your English ? Why ? Because HE had not yet been killed and had not died yet risen from the dead as He knew He soon would be killed BY THE JEWS..
To the Jews, apparently yes, He did but, the Jews of that time were revolting against even God.. Where has Israel been since the time of Yeshua ???????????????
So tell us, why does the RCC proclaim and declare their " divive authority " then ? They had their detractors burnt alive so as to prevent them being exposed as fraudsters, remember ?

No one here has ever said that Yeshua is God nor has HE ever said that...
So you are saying that forgiving someone's sin proves a person is God? Jesus taught us to forgive others, I suppose that would make us Gods also.
 

YeshuaFan

Well-known member
TO YOU THEY MAYBE SEEM TO BE SAYING, EVRYTHING/ANYTHING THAT YOU WANT THEM TO SAY, LOL, YESHUA ( at least get His Real Name Right ) never taught that HE is God, He did tell us that God IS His Father,,,
YOU alone demand that the Bible " implies " and or says what ever suits YOU..
Jesus is NOT God so, your deliberate LIES are exposed for what they are,,, lol
Jesus claimed that God was his father, that He was equal to God!
 

YeshuaFan

Well-known member
For once in your life I agree with you, Jesus did not teach He was God, instead He proved He was God. Here, I'll give you one example out of many. Luke 5: 20-24, "And seeing their faith, He/Jesus said, Friend, your sins are forgiven." Vs21, "And the Scribes and the Pharisees began to reason, saying, Who is this man who speaks blasphemies? Who can forgive sins but God alone."

So tell me JNelson or rossh, did Jesus in your opinion commit blasphemy as the Jews claimed? Secondly, at vs22, Jesus was well aware of the Jews reasoning and Jesus ask them a very simple question in which the answer Jesus gave proves He is God.

Vs23, "Which is easier, to say , Your sins have been forgiven you, or to say rise and walk?" The healing of the body would be more dramatic and verifiable. However, by forgiving the mans sins it affected him spiritually. Ultimately speaking, taking care of the sin problem would solve (in the ultimate sense) the physical problem when Christians receive new bodies.

At vs 24, notice used the term "Son of Man" which is a reference to the Messiah at Daniel 7:13. Moreover, Jesus claimed that the power to heal the man was proof of His divine authority to forgive sins. Jesus' claim to authority which belonged only to deity was the act which caused the religious leaders to launch their organized opposition to Him from that time on. This can clearly been seen at the trial of Jesus at Matthew 26.

IN GOD THE SON,
james
Jesus claimed that He same from heaven. was sent forth from the father, and was Himself also God!
 

YeshuaFan

Well-known member
You are worse than Mormons.

Now you are making your three Gods into persons to cover your nonsense...Who is (1) person the Father (2)person the son and(3)person the HS? Are they not the same you call each God?
One Being, each Person fully God, just one God!
 

OldShepherd

Well-known member
I just posted the scriptures proving what you wrote is wrong...Please try to address the scriptures and not me...
John 20:23
Whose soever sins ye remit, they are remitted unto them; and whose soever sins ye retain, they are retained.
Is this passage missing from your bible?
Jn 17:22 And the glory which thou gavest me I have given them; that they may be one, even as we are one:
Jesus prayed that his apostles be one in the same way. that did not make Peter into John or John into Peter neither does the passage make Jesus God
Yours and the Novatian clown who wrote that misunderstanding of the scripture is noted
That simply means Christ is over all and God blessed him... If Paul was saying Jesus is God he wouldn't have written this...
1 Corinthians 11:3
But I would have you know, that the head of every man is Christ; and the head of the woman is the man; and the head of Christ is God.
Actually the passage shows God raised Jesus from the dead. therefore Jesus is not a God else he could not have died.
Galatians 1:1
Paul, an apostle, (not of men, neither by man, but by Jesus Christ, and God the Father, who raised him from the dead;)
Paul was referring to the men preaching the gospel, not that that Jesus was not a man. The same Paul wrote...
1 Timothy 2:5
For there is one God, and one mediator between God and men, the man Christ Jesus;
If Jesus is not a man then Paul lied to Timothy... and to us because Jesus is still mediating between God and men.
That was when he was in the father. He was made a man. Lower than the angels. That is not so hard to understand.
Nope, the scripture is clear he came out from God and he was man a man, a little lower than the angels.
That is one person putting his own spin on the scripture...Out of ignorance, he is assuming that Jesus is God. The scripture does not teach that Jesus is God and the son of God.
That statement makes does not make Jesus God.
John 14:23
Jesus answered and said unto him, If a man love me, he will keep my words: and my Father will love him, and we will come unto him, and make our abode with him
There is no mention of a God the word in the scripture...Actually, the scripture teaches that God made Jesus Lord and Christ...also God is the head of Christ...
If Jesus is God the word and was begotten by God the word, then you have two Gods...Do you have multiple Gods?
No you did NOT you posted a bunch of verses which did not show how the scriptures I posted were wrong. Try again and show me if you can, but I doubt it, how anything I posted is wrong.
 

OldShepherd

Well-known member
The Bible calls men God also.
You mean like Psalm 82? Here is the translation of that Psalm from the Jewish Publication Society
Psalms 82:1-2
1 A Psalm of Asaph. God standeth in the congregation of God; in the midst of the judges He judgeth:
2 'How long will ye judge unjustly, and respect the persons of the wicked? Selah
. . .
Psalms 82:6-7
6 I said: Ye are godlike beings, and all of you sons of the Most High.
7 Nevertheless ye shall die like men, and fall like one of the princes.'​
Do you understand what I'm trying to tell you?
The Jews understood that the Judges of Israel were not actually gods because they would die like the men they were. All the other proof texts you can think of can also be explained so none of them prove anything about Jesus being called and addressed as God. But we can go through this little tap dance if you insist.
 

OldShepherd

Well-known member
Psalm 8:5
For thou hast made him a little lower than the angels, and hast crowned him with glory and honour.
Hebrews 2:9
But we see Jesus, who was made a little lower than the angels for the suffering of death, crowned with glory and honour; that he by the grace of God should taste death for every man.
Please explain how the scripture is a head in the sand response...
Jesus existed in one form, Philippians 2, vs. 6, but took upon himself another form, vs. 7.
What was Jesus’ form before? If he was literally, actually a man afterward what was he literally, actually before?
Philippians 2:6-11 6. Who, being [continual existence] in the form [μορφη] of God, thought it not robbery [something to be used to His advantage. NIV] the being equal with God:
(Greek Interlinear) Philippians 2:6-11 ος {who,} εν {in [the]} μορφη {form} θεου {of god} υπαρχων {subsisting,} ουχ {not} αρπαγμον {something to be used to his own advantage} ηγησατο το {esteemed it} ειναι {the being} ισα {equal} θεω {with god;}
The verb ειναι, translated ”to be,” in the KJV, which appears to be a future tense, in English, is a present infinitive, not a future tense.
the being equal with god,” was a, then, present reality not something considered and declined/rejected.
7 But made himself of no reputation, and took upon him[self] the form of a servant, and was made in the likeness of men:​
Jesus’ earthly ministry occurred between verses, 7 and 8. Where the one who was equal with God, vs. 6, the one who, acting upon himself, became flesh, cf. John 1:14, made himself of no reputation, vs. 7, cf. Heb 2:17, took upon himself the form of a servant, and was in the likeness of men, vs. 7. After which God, not merely exalted him, but “highly exalted” him, and glorified him with the same glory he had with the Father before the world existed (John 17:5)
It was here where all the things anti-Trinitarians cannot comprehend happened, e.g. “If Jesus was God, why didn’t he know the hour of his return?” etc., etc., etc.
8 And being found in fashion as a man, he humbled himself, and became obedient unto death, even the death of the cross.​
If Jesus was only a mere human being, how does a human being, “humble himself and become obedient unto death?” All mankind is appointed to death, no obedience or humbling involved! Heb 9:27. Were the criminals who were crucified with Jesus also obedient, did they also humble themselves unto death on the cross?
9 Wherefore God also hath highly exalted him, and given him a name which is above every name:
10 That at the name of Jesus every knee should bow, cf. [יהוה/YHWH, Isa 45:23] of things in heaven, and things in earth, and things under the earth;
11 And that every tongue should confess that Jesus Christ is Lord, cf. [ יהוה/YHWH, Isa 45:23] to the glory of God the Father.​
In verses 10,11 Paul applies Isaiah 45:23, which refers to יהוה/YHWH], to Jesus as I have shown above!
The Committee on Bible Translation worked at updating the New International Version of the Bible to be published in 2011.
In it's notes under "Progress in Scholarship" it discusses the following change:
When the NIV was first translated, the meaning of the rare Greek word αρπαγμον /harpagmos, rendered ‟something to be grasped,” in Philippians 2:6 was uncertain. But further study has shown that the word refers to something that a person has in their possession but chooses not to use to their own advantage. The updated NIV reflects this new information, making clear that Jesus really was equal with God when he determined to become a human for our sake: ‟[Christ Jesus], being in very nature God, did not consider equality with God something to be used to his own advantage.”​
 

OldShepherd

Well-known member
So you are saying that forgiving someone's sin proves a person is God? Jesus taught us to forgive others, I suppose that would make us Gods also.
Is this a serious response? When one person forgives another person for some sin the other person committed against him, are you suggesting that God will forgive all the sins the second person has ever committed?
When Jesus forgives all the sins a person has ever committed does the Father forgive all those sins. If you can't see the difference maybe you need to go back to Sunday School or Sabbath School depending on your denomination.
Matt 6:12 Luk 11:4
 

rossh

Well-known member
So you are saying that forgiving someone's sin proves a person is God? Jesus taught us to forgive others, I suppose that would make us Gods also.
I suppose YOU do think that way for sure. My opinions are squat but your opinions seem to be Godlike are you also God now ? judging all others who disagree with you and such ?
 

rossh

Well-known member
Yet you support OS who says Jesus is God.

I simply post the scripture in it's context.

So why do you support OS and Johnny guitar who teaches Jesus is God?
WHAT ? Why do you think that we have to answer to you ???? here at CARM now ?? wow....
 

rossh

Well-known member
Yet you support OS who says Jesus is God.

I simply post the scripture in it's context.

So why do you support OS and Johnny guitar who teaches Jesus is God?
there is absolutely NO Scriptures at all here, nor in any other posts that I have noted ?
 

rossh

Well-known member
Meaningless garbage. This is on the level of a preschooler arguing with another preschooler in a playground "Neener, neener, neener. You're wrong and I'm right. Am too, Nuh huh." Anybody can make statements like that. They don't mean anything. Can you show any conclusive evidence that anything I posted is wrong? Do you even know what that might be. I doubt it.
Sure can, the post you just posted, bullying other posters and talking shit because you are wrong but will not accept it.. Go home!!
 

Yahchristian

Well-known member
No. Jesus did not teach he was God.
For once in your life I agree with you, Jesus did not teach He was God, instead He proved He was God.

So Just to clarify your Trinitarian view...

Was Jesus teaching here?

Jesus saith unto him, Have I been so long time with you, and yet hast thou not known me, Philip? he that hath seen me hath seen the Father; and how sayest thou then, Shew us the Father?

1) No.
2) Yes, but not that he was God.
 
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