Does God have eyes?

L

Lee Magee

Member
Genesis 6:8
KJV But Noah found grace in the eyes of the LORD (ונח מצא חן בעיני יהוה)
LXX But Noe found grace before the Lord God (Νωε δὲ εὗρεν χάριν ἐναντίον κυρίου τοῦ θεοῦ)

Genesis 30:27
KJV I have found favour in thine eyes (מצאתי חן בעיניך)
LXX I have found grace before thy (εὗρον χάριν ἐναντίον σου)

Genesis 34:11
KJV Let me find grace in your eyes (אמצא־חן בעיניכם)
LXX I would find grace before you (εὕροιμι χάριν ἐναντίον ὑμῶν)

Deuteronomy 13:18
KJV right in the eyes of the LORD thy God (הישר בעיני יהוה אלהיך)
LXX pleasing before the Lord thy God (τὸ ἀρεστὸν ἐναντίον κυρίου τοῦ θεοῦ σου)

2 Chronicles 21:6
KJV evil in the eyes of the LORD (הרע בעיני יהוה)
LXX evil before the Lord (πονηρὸν ἐναντίον κυρίου)
 
The Septuagint incorrectly translates חן into χάριν "grace", but the correct translation is ἔλεος " pity, mercy, compassion" and the verb מצא is not εὑρίσκω but τυγχάνω ; befall one, find.

τετύχηκα ἔλεος > מצאתי חן "I have found mercy"

Diodorus Siculus, Library 11.32.5 - οὐδενὸς ἐτύγχανον ἐλέου "they found no mercy"
 
Act 7:46
Who found favour before God (ὃς εὗρεν χάριν ἐνώπιον τοῦ θεοῦ)

This conforms to the Septuagint reading of Genesis 6:8, but the adverb is ἐνώπιον rather then ἐναντίον.

1 Chronicles 17:17
KJV And yet this was a small thing in thine eyes (ותקטן זאת בעיניך)
LXX And these things were little before thee (καὶ ἐσμικρύνθη ταῦτα ἐνώπιόν σου)

ἐνώπιον לפני
 
Ruth 2:10
KJV I have found grace in thy eyes (מצאתי חן בעיניך)
LXX I found grace in thy eyes (εὗρον χάριν ἐν ὀφθαλμοῗς σου)
VULGATE gratiam ante oculos tuos

Here the Septuagint translates it literally and also the Vulgate, but uses ante as the preposition, which follows an accusative, where-as ἐν follows
a dative. ἀντί and ἄντα follows a genitive.

ante (before) oculos (eyes) = “ἄντ᾽ ὀφθαλμοῖϊν” "before his eyes"

Homer, Odyssey 4.115
His purple cloak before his eyes (χλαῖναν πορφυρέην ἄντ᾽ ὀφθαλμοῖιν)

In the Phoenician עון "eye" is αὐγή rather then ὀφθαλμός so that עיני be αὐγῶν
 
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Genesis 1:2
face of the deep (על־פני תהום) (ἐπάνω τῆς ἀβύσσου) (super faciem abyssi)
face of the waters (על־פני המים) (ἐπάνω τοῦ ὕδατος) (super aquas)

The Septuagint does not use a literal word for face, but the adverb ἐπάνω above, on the upper side or part. The Septuagint incorrectly uses ἐπάνω
for מעל which is ὑπεράνω

ὑπεράνω מעל Above (άνω/מ־)
ὑπεράνωθεν ממעל From above

Nehemiah 12:39 מעל לשער־אפרים / ὑπεράνω τῆς πύλης Εφραιμ (ἀγορῶν) "from above the gate of Ephraim" VUL super portam Ephraim
 
Lee Magee said:
Genesis 1:2
face of the deep (על־פני תהום) (ἐπάνω τῆς ἀβύσσου) (super faciem abyssi)
face of the waters (על־פני המים) (ἐπάνω τοῦ ὕδατος) (super aquas)

The Septuagint does not use a literal word for face, but the adverb ἐπάνω above, on the upper side or part. The Septuagint incorrectly uses ἐπάνω
for מעל which is ὑπεράνω

ὑπεράνω מעל Above (άνω/מ־)
ὑπεράνωθεν ממעל From above

Nehemiah 12:39 מעל לשער־אפרים / ὑπεράνω τῆς πύλης Εφραιμ (ἀγορῶν) "from above the gate of Ephraim" VUL super portam Ephraim
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No idea what you're talking about - I am just looking at the interlinear

פָנִים (panim or paneh: face, faces)
עַל (al: above, over)

פני (face)
המים (of the waters)
עַל־ (over)
 
Caroljeen said:
jesus is God and he has eyes.
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If you need to use "God" adjectivally, you need to find another word, as in the Greek it's a noun, even the title of the Father.

Thus, 2 Corinthians 5:19, Θεὸς ἦν ἐν Χριστῷ "God was in Christ," doesn't conform to your usage of "God."
 
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Caroljeen said:
I'm not using it adjectivally. Nor am I using God as a title. I agree with JM on this subject. Jn 20:28, Heb 1:8
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You are certainly using "God" adjectivally. For NT doctrine, see 2 Cor 5:19 (supra). Jn 20:28 and Heb 1:8 are OT doctrine, where any agent/son of YHWH could be denoted by the name of YHWH cf. Ps 82:6, John 10:34-36.

John 20:28 is anyway qualified by "of me," which should be contrasted with John 20:17 where Jesus used "God" with the same qualifier to denote his Father.

That is, if you want to say "Jesus is the God of me," you are entitled to, but it is not much different from saying "Jesus is Lord" - i.e. a way of qualifying this. You cannot deny that Jesus referred to the Father as the "God of Jesus."

Your doctrine is that of poster "John Milton" (i.e. not TRJM).
 
[QUOTE="cjab, post: 915411, member: 2218"
Your doctrine is that of poster "John Milton" (i.e. not TRJM).
[/QUOTE] Except that I am a Oneness believer and JM is not.
 
cjab said:
Not everyone is willing to rationalize what they believe. Oneness also have a rationalization problem : Jesus died. God cannot die.
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When God became human, as a human he had the capacity to die just like us. John 1:1-14, Heb 2:14-17
 
Caroljeen said:
When God became human, as a human he had the capacity to die just like us. John 1:1-14, Heb 2:14-17
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Whoever said "God became human?" The bible says the Word became flesh. In John 1:1b the Word is distinguished from "[the] God."

In Jn 1:1c, "God" is an anarthrous predicate, which the best scholars have interpreted as "invested with the properties & glory of God." It's my interpretation that this state of affairs could only exist in heaven.
 
cjab said:
Whoever said "God became human?" The bible says the Word became flesh. In John 1:1b the Word is distinguished from "[the] God."

In Jn 1:1c, "God" is an anarthrous predicate, which the best scholars have interpreted as "invested with the properties & glory of God." It's my interpretation that this state of affairs could only exist in heaven.
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The Word is God. Read it in context from vs 1-14.
 
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