You are being overly literal. If I told you that someone was going to visit you and two people knocked on your door, that would be entirely consistent with how we use language.
That being said, I don't cite BDAG for proof or for their opinions. I agree that theology does infiltrate it at times.
Red above is not even the correct analogy.
Look at the English immediately following the Greek bold, since you're unable to comprehend the Greek itself without prompting πρός τινα εἶναι -- "be (in company) with someone."
So according to BDAG all of the following NT verses are declaring [for someone ] "to be (in company) with someone." However, all of the following are in fact examples of someone/ something/ some people being in the vicinity of some people, (NEVER someone)," except of course John 1:1 / 1 John 1:2 , the very verse in question and in dispute. And this is just the first among a few subtle lies in that BDAG gloss:
g. by, at, near πρός τινα εἶναι be (in company) with someone Mt 13:56; Mk 6:3; 9:19a; 14:49; Lk 9:41; J 1:1f; 1 Th 3:4; 2 Th 2:5; 3:10; 1J 1:2.
On the other hand, the big issue should be for you, now that λόγος cannot be anything inanimate that proceeded from God in the beginning because of προς, what will you call it now?
What's the final answer?