Chalcedon
Well-known member
make up you mind and quit flip flopping all over the place which is it the majority or minority ?
Election
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ReverendRV
Well-known member
He gives you many opportunities to show the Lurkers...
I'm sure he feels he's making headway though...
Sethproton
Well-known member
Are you just unable to read for understanding, or do you intentionally twist people's words and expect no one will notice?
I said there is wisdom in a multitude of counselors. You read that and report me as saying the minority is wrong. Really?
Sethproton
Well-known member
Maybe I underestimate the lurkers. It troubles me when you blatantly misrepresent people like me.
But perhaps they see thru you? I hope so
Chalcedon
Well-known member
That is an impossibility since anyone with 1/4 of a brain can see the scripture contradicts his position. Every single bible translation exposes his error.
What is ironic is that when it suit him he says the translations are accurate and doesn't need the Greek but then uses the reverse arguments when its convenient.
1 John 4:2-3 and 2 John 7 are examples where the person literally rejects every Greek reference and expert and says our English translations are fine but when its convenient such as the case with 1 Tim 2:5 then he pleads the 5th and goes with the Greek ( which he doesn't know contradicts him) because he cannot read or translate Greek into English.
I just love the irony
Chalcedon
Well-known member
Oh no I have you dialed in and everyone but you knows that seth. Its why I saved so many of your previous posts so you have to confront your own words.
Chalcedon
Well-known member
Here are you own words which you left out "
" Calvinism is discredited. Mainstream Christianity disagrees with TULIP. "
And for the lurkers here is the link to the above quote
Election
and the majority in scripture is always wrong. insert foot into mouth 🤣 oops....................... And here's the thing.... When this poster finds it convenient, he uses the "minority view" to attack Christianity. Yet this same poster holds such a "minority view" on some doctrines, that he...
forums.carm.org
oops...................................
hand caught in cookie jar again
insert foot into mouth.
Sethproton
Well-known member
You have an interesting approach, arguing against things I do not say, and ignoring what I do say.That is an impossibility since anyone with 1/4 of a brain can see the scripture contradicts his position. Every single bible translation exposes his error.
What is ironic is that when it suit him he says the translations are accurate and doesn't need the Greek but then uses the reverse arguments when its convenient.
1 John 4:2-3 and 2 John 7 are examples where the person literally rejects every Greek reference and expert and says our English translations are fine but when its convenient such as the case with 1 Tim 2:5 then he pleads the 5th and goes with the Greek ( which he doesn't know contradicts him) because he cannot read or translate Greek into English.
I just love the irony
I tell you that the word "is" is not literally in the Greek, but that it seems to be a proper way to translate to english
Then you list all the translations that render it the way I said was correct, and consider that somehow proves me wrong.
The real point is worth repeating. The greek word for "is" is not present, therefore to make a point on the tense of the verb is meaningless.
Chalcedon
Well-known member
I will quote Theo1689
"As for the 1 Tim. 2:5 text, the verb "is" is implicit in the text. This frequently occurs in the Greek, that the verb is implied in terms of identity attribute, or what is called the "predicate nominative". But since it teaches identity, it is ALWAYS the present tense, "is", and is never any other tense (such as aorist, imperfect, future, perfect, etc.)."
And he is 100% correct see below :
Nominative-Predicate
Linking verbs such as εἰμί, γίνομαι, and ὑπάρχω are completed with an object in nominative case. The Nominative-Predicate (also referred to as Predicate Nominative) construction can take different forms but consists of a subject + a linking verb + an object in the nominative case. [The linking verb may be implied and not actually present in the text.] Care must be used in the translation of a Nominative-Predicate because the object may not be in the last position and is often not an exact equivalent of the subject. The Predicate Nominative is generally the larger class of objects, while the subject is the smaller class. Therefore, the translator must clearly understand which word (or phrase) is the subject of the sentence and which word (or phrase) is the predicate nominative. The translator must use equal care in the translation so that the reader will be able to distinguish between the subject and the predicate nominative.Sethproton
Well-known member
So you quote two of my sentences:
Calvinism is discredited.
Mainstream Christianity disagrees with TULIP.
Then you claim I said the majority is always right.
Can anyone see how those two sentences logically are stating Civic's claim about what i meant?
ReverendRV
Well-known member
Like I said, this was another opportunity to show the Lurkers; way to go. My hope is that it backfires on him, and the Lurkers say 'Those Calvinists are the ones who are right about the Bodily Resurrection, maybe I should look into Calvinism with an Open Mind'...That is an impossibility since anyone with 1/4 of a brain can see the scripture contradicts his position. Every single bible translation exposes his error.
What is ironic is that when it suit him he says the translations are accurate and doesn't need the Greek but then uses the reverse arguments when its convenient.
1 John 4:2-3 and 2 John 7 are examples where the person literally rejects every Greek reference and expert and says our English translations are fine but when its convenient such as the case with 1 Tim 2:5 then he pleads the 5th and goes with the Greek ( which he doesn't know contradicts him) because he cannot read or translate Greek into English.
I just love the irony
ReverendRV
Well-known member
Nah, let him keep it up; like I said, he's our biggest example to the Lurkers we're right...
Theo1689
Well-known member
Um, you juxtaposed them against each other.
So were we supposed to interpret them as completely independent of each other, as if you were simply posting "fortune cookie" messages?
Um, EVERYONE can.
Sethproton
Well-known member
Since I never said the majority is right nor that the minority is right, it would seem impossible, that someone deduced the meaning you claim from those two sentences that say no such thing
Theo1689
Well-known member
So nobody's allowed to testify for themselves.
Seth gets to dictate to everyone how they think and what they see and understand.
Got it.
Sethproton
Well-known member
when you make statements about what I said, or about me personally, I will correct you
Chalcedon
Well-known member
TibiasDad
Well-known member
So a verb must be actually present, as opposed to implied, in order for it to carry theological significance? The critical portion of 1 Tim 2:5 is that the present tense mediator is "the man Jesus Christ". The " is" is a rabbit trail, as you have admitted that the present tense is the appropriate translation, and the present tense is cleary written in Hebrews, so your present argument is invalidated.
Moreover, I am still waiting for you to prove your thesis:
"...no language, syntax of lexical facts are going to provide your understanding of Mediator. Your understanding comes from the church"
Thus, you would need to demonstrate that, a) you can express my "understanding of Mediator", and that b) the language, syntax, an lexical is contrary to "my understanding of Mediator."
Doug
Theo1689
Well-known member
Let's remind the readership what YOU originally asked:
So this is not about what "you" said. It's about YOU asking OTHERS how they interpreted it.
You are welcome.