You said, "If there were one verb for everything up to this point that would be it." This statement couldn't possibly be true, and there is no way anyone who knew Greek would have even hinted at it.I don't take δοὺς as serving as the one verb.
Incorrect.That was what his argument devolved to.
I just told you what it was. You're the one who claimed that it was a verb.And you know δοὺς is an independent participle.
He used imprecise terminology while likely presuming that he was interacting with an intelligent poster acting in good faith. Unfortunately for him, he was dealing with you...You say he's right but he calls all of verse 5 one clause and you know that's wrong.
I saw what you wrote. You mistakenly call an article a "pronoun." You mistakenly call a participial phrase a "relative clause." You mistakenly call the participle δοὺς a "verb." Did I overlook anything else?And if you read my analysis in this thread you will see that I say δοὺς modifies ἄνθρωπος, but he says the present tense verb in clause #1 does.
This is what I wrote:
At worst TibiasDad is guilty of imprecision. In my estimation even this assertion is entirely unfounded. Since he actually said "whole of the clause/thought," it seems likely that he assumed you would be able to understand what he meant. Instead, you seized on a point of little to no importance as though it were a grave error.
You, on the other hand, have made several errors, not the least of which was trying to pass yourself off as one who actually knows Greek. It should be obvious which of the two of you has made a mistake.