The requirements were that He represented both parties ( God and man) therefor he is both God and man. That is what Jesus as mediator means throughout the book of Hebrews. That is one book I happen to know and have studied . So I am not buying into your view at all since Hebrews says he is still our present mediator . And the priest also must be human and he is now our high priest in heaven who intercedes on our behalf.
I do consider him to be presently mediating. The text is clear.
I believe I have demonstrated that the grammar cannot be proven to say he currently exists as a human being with flesh and blood.
In fact
@John Milton, while he may believe this is true has stopped short of saying that the Greek grammar at 1 Ti 2:5-6 proves this.
And just to be clear, I don't claim that the grammar proves that he is not. That cannot be determined from this text.
As a result I don't bear the burden of proof.
And how can anyone say it has been met by those who agree with you when JM won't even address it directly?
Those who view it that way need to parse the verse and show what it says where they want a present tense verb to apply to 1 Ti 2:5c.
I am the only one who has done that and it results in a rendering that no English bible uses.
And, this point is not critical for me. BDAG says here that "man" refers to one who identifies with humanity, not that is part of humanity.
In my view the fact that he gave himself as a ransom while he was a human being and that he retains the memory of what humans go through firsthand is sufficient to satisfy everything Scripture says is necessary for that role.
