Obviously it had more than 2 typos. That's all that a certain person could find. But there was really more.In a book the size of the KJV Bible (and that probably included the Apocrypha) the chance of a typo or two escaping the proofreader's eyes, esp in 17th century technology, is substantial. I'd be a little surprised that a ca. 1680 edition had only two typos.
David Daniels was likely referring to two of what D. A. Waite calls the three Oxford errors. If I recall correctly, David Daniels may mention Jeremiah 34:16 and 2 Chronicles 33:19 as the two.David Daniels claimed: “There are actually two single mistakes that were introduced by printers at Oxford University Press over 60 years after the KJV was first printed” (Answers to your Bible Version Questions, p. 127). Daniels asserted: “Cambridge University Press did not make the printing error. And all Cambridge-type texts have the correct readings” (Ibid.).
From MY studies, I conclude that both you & Verschuur are wrong. The KJVO myth has been proven false over & over.Actually their big differences seems to be whether the AV has differences in meaning and usage in words like the following:
stablish - establish
ensample - example
alway - always
From my studies to date, I tend to side with Matthew Verschuur.