John 1 proves nothing about his pre-existence because it is talking about in the beginning there and not before the beginning. His first mention is after the Word became flesh or there was no fleshly Jesus before the the Word became flesh.And that is just your Twisted Opinion ( 2 Peter 3:16 ) of those AS IS scriptures that I Posted! Now lets get back to the Son ( Jesus Christ )! Do you believe that His ( the Sons ) pre-existence as the WORD in John 1:1 " was God " as most versions of the Bible say, " was a god " as your NWT of the Holy Scriptures?!