There are many errors in your presentation here.
First of all, let's talk about the verse, "my words shall not pass away".
1) Is that referring to the entire Bible, or only Jesus' words? (Prove it.)
2) Is that referring to each individual "word" (and each corresponding syllable), or is it referring simply to the overall message ("rhema")? (Prove it.)
3) Is it referring to the preservation of "His words" (whatever we determine that means):
a) in the original languages (Hebrew, Greek, Aramaic);
b) in English;
c) in all languages of the world?
(Prove it.)
4) If it means "all languages of the world", then if translations in different languages read differently, which one is correct? How do you determine it? (Prove it.)
5) If one English translation renders John 11:35 as "Jesus wept", and another as "Jesus cried", and yet another as "Jesus sobbed", are they all correct, or are two of them in error? And if the latter, how do we determine which is the correct rendering? (Prove it.)
KJVO's make a GREAT many assumptions in getting to their conclusion, and I have yet to see them substantiate ANY of them.
Just as you can pretend to not see all the errors in the KJV, such as 1 John 5:7-8, Rev. 16:5, etc. etc.
And we can recognize these errors precisely BECAUSE God has preserved His word.
Take your own advice.