"God" vs. "Father"

John 1:3 isn't talking about Jesus Christ.

Yes it is. (John 1:14, Rev 19:13).

Col 1:16 lists the things that are being created through Jesus.

All things were created THROUGH God (Rom 11:36).

For from him and through him and for him are all things.
To him be the glory forever! Amen.

Jesus is the Lord through whom are all things. It's because Jesus Christ was successful in what God required of him that our future is guaranteed.

Again, all things THROUGH God (Rom 11:36).

Rev 3:14 does not say what you claim. It says Jesus was the beginning of God's creation.

Rev 3:14 calls Jesus THE SOURCE/ORIGIN of God's creation. Hmm that's exactly what John 1:3, Col 1:16, 1 Cor 8:6 say..

P.s.: what does "the beginning of God's creation" even mean to you?
 
YHVH(Jehovah)the only true God=Father created all things--The being named Jesus as a mortal, created direct, first and last= The only begotten son) = The FIRSTBORN of all creation( Col 1:15,16) all other things God created through Jesus.
This is a JW teaching, and it's not correct. Jesus Christ is a man. He began his existence as a man, and he is still a man, albeit a glorified and highly exalted man, second in command over God's creation.
 
It's new for you, TR, otherwise you would have included it in your previous posts defending your position.


We'll see. Have a good evening.
Calling me a liar?
Thus far all trinitarians here have only shown how inconsistent and unbiblical their position is. Some have correctly stated that the Father’s name is Yahweh and therefore the God of Jesus is Yahweh making it impossible for Jesus to be Yahweh. If trinitarians still claim he is Yahweh then either Jesus is his own God or there are two Yahwehs.

When the trinitarian layers are pulled back it reveals they are either modalists or polytheists
Click to expand...
Keep studying, the truth will set you free!

Zech. 2:11 proves that there is more than one person named Yahveh:

And many nations shall be joined to Yahveh in that day and shall be My people, and I will dwell in your midst (cp. Zech. 2:10), and you shall know that Yahveh of hosts sent Me to you (cp. Zech. 2:9).

Note the two persons identified by the name Yahveh (יהוה). The one who sends is the Father, and the one who is sent to dwell among Israel is the Son. This theme is especially emphasized in the Gospel and Epistles of John (cp. John 1:14; John 8:42; 1 John 4:14).
 
YHVH(Jehovah)the only true God=Father created all things--The being named Jesus as a mortal, created direct, first and last= The only begotten son) = The FIRSTBORN of all creation( Col 1:15,16) all other things God created through Jesus.

So "a god" DID NOT make all things?? God made a god, and that other god was responsible for the rest of creation? That's literally Gnosticism. You're saying Jesus is the Demiurge.

P.s.: I don't see the word "other" in John 1:3 or Col 1:16.
 
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So He's called the Word of God, you say, but He's not the Word of God.. Even though John 1:14 also calls Jesus as the Word.. Seems legit.. :rolleyes:
It’s only legit if you isolate a couple verses and ignore everything else.

Tell me, does Jesus keep himself?

“But you have not known him. I know him. If I were to say that I do not know him, I would be a liar like you, but I do know him and I keep his word.”
John 1:3 says all things were made by Him..
Not about Jesus nor the Genesis creation.
so does Col 1:16..
This is about Jesus but not the Genesis creation. This is post resurrection.
so does 1 Cor 8:6..
Great verse that once again unambiguously states the Father alone is God like Jesus did in John 17:3
so does Rev 3:14..
Nothing to do with creation, Jesus is the ruler of all creation 2nd only to God who put all in subjection to Jesus. And this is also post resurrection.
get the picture?
Yep, it’s quite clear you like to take verses out of context.
 
Wow, this comment is wrong on so many levels. First off, whether John 1:1c should be translated "the Word a god." or "the Word was God." is an issue of syntax and grammar and not definition. So, why would lexicon, a book recording the definitions of words, have anything to say about the "a" or not in John 1:1c? Secondly, no lexicon proves one should add an "a" to John 1:1c. That's not what lexicons do. The lexicons tell us that θεός means God or god They don't tell us whether one should include an indefinite article when translating. Thirdly, the grammatical structure of John 1:1c categorically rejects the "a" understanding of John 1:1c.

In the future, stop making us nonsense to support your theological positions. You should at least express that you've read a single article on the topic from any position, because this comment just tells everyone that you don't know what you are talking about.
The true God is called-Ton Theon = God, the word is called Theon=god to show a difference. At John 1:1. Same occurs at 2 Cor 4:4-The true God called-Ton Theon=God, satan called Theon=god, when in the same paragraph together with Ton Theon. In every instance, but they are the only 2 spots that have that.

And what lexicon tells you that? Oh yeah, none of them do. You are just making up more BS to support your dogma. Keep on showing everyone that you don't have a clue what you are talking about. You don't even know the difference between the nominative and accusative cases in Greek.

God Bless

PS:
Θεός is nominative.
Θεόν is accusative.
Θεῷ is dative.
Θεοῦ genitive.

John 1:1b-c ὁ λόγος ἦν πρὸς τὸν θεόν καὶ θεὸς ἦν ὁ λόγος
 
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It’s only legit if you isolate a couple verses and ignore everything else.

Tell me, does Jesus keep himself?

“But you have not known him. I know him. If I were to say that I do not know him, I would be a liar like you, but I do know him and I keep his word.”

Not about Jesus nor the Genesis creation.

This is about Jesus but not the Genesis creation. This is post resurrection.

Great verse that once again unambiguously states the Father alone is God like Jesus did in John 17:3

Nothing to do with creation, Jesus is the ruler of all creation 2nd only to God who put all in subjection to Jesus. And this is also post resurrection.

Yep, it’s quite clear you like to take verses out of context.

Okay.
 
All things were made by the Word (John 1:3).

Were all things created by "a god"? :rolleyes:

Sounds like gnositicsm.

Louw-Nida Greek Lexicon
χωρίς: χωρὶς αὐτοῦ ἐγένετο οὐδὲ ἕν 'not one thing came into existence without him' Jn 1.3. It would be wrong to restructure Jn 1.3 to read 'he made everything in all creation,' for in the Scriptures God is spoken of as the Creator, but the creation was done 'through the Word.' If one must restructure Jn 1.3, it may be possible to say 'he was involved in everything that was created' or 'he took part in creating everything.'
 
Louw-Nida Greek Lexicon
χωρίς: χωρὶς αὐτοῦ ἐγένετο οὐδὲ ἕν 'not one thing came into existence without him' Jn 1.3. It would be wrong to restructure Jn 1.3 to read 'he made everything in all creation,' for in the Scriptures God is spoken of as the Creator, but the creation was done 'through the Word.' If one must restructure Jn 1.3, it may be possible to say 'he was involved in everything that was created' or 'he took part in creating everything.'

You're still a gnostic.
 
The Greek lexicons prove the word was not called God at John 1:1, but a god.
There is no indefinite article in the Greek and your premise is false. The God in Jn 1:1c is the same God as in Jn 1:1b, just differently expressed as a as opposed to a title in Jn 1:1b. There is only one God (not two which is polytheistic).
 
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