"having saved...afterward destroyed"

Just in case you think I am pitting scripture against scripture,
You are.
here is some more about man's ability to choose.
He told them to choose one of their false gods.

Not YHWH. Read the list.

Whoooops!

Joshua 24:15​

15 But if serving the Lord seems undesirable to you, then choose for yourselves this day whom you will serve, whether the gods your ancestors served beyond the Euphrates, or the gods of the Amorites, in whose land you are living. But as for me and my household, we will serve the Lord.”
And finally? That isn't a text showing one how to gain eternal life.

You're eisegeting. Misusing Scripture. Devoid of 2 Timothy 2:15. Again.
 
The problem is in the foundation of your thinking. Each time you see "saved" you think "given eternal life."
Actually I don't (see below).
Hint: "Saved" doesn't always mean given eternal life.
I completely agree that as a hermeneutical principle, the concept of salvation in the Bible is not limited to eternal life and/or forgiveness of sins. Paul says that women shall be saved in childbearing (1 Tim. 2:15) and Jesus uses the word "saved" in reference to physical healing. But here in Jude 1:5 it seems that he is indeed using salvation as a way of describing eternal life by analogy with the Exodus deliverance and subsequent wilderness wanderings. That's why he uses the words "saved" vs. "destroyed." The "salvation" in Exodus was deliverance from Egypt (not eternal life), and the "destruction" in the wilderness was physical death (not eternal death). But Jude's appropriation of the OT metaphor serves to instruct his audience about eternal life and eternal death. He certainly isn't warning them of physical death, is he? For first century Christians, it was precisely those who remained most faithful who ended up persecuted and martyred, i.e. "destroyed" if we insist on maintaining the earthly destruction that was in view in the OT narrative!
 
Just in case you think I am pitting scripture against scripture, here is some more about man's ability to choose.

Joshua 24:15​

15 But if serving the Lord seems undesirable to you, then choose for yourselves this day whom you will serve, whether the gods your ancestors served beyond the Euphrates, or the gods of the Amorites, in whose land you are living. But as for me and my household, we will serve the Lord.”
After Grace, right?
 
Gods grace is revealed clearly in that scripture that he has given man the ability using his free will to choose him, to choose either life or death. I can't see how that can be argued.
What about after the Efficacious Grace of the Holy Spirit Circumcising the Ears to hear?
 
Actually I don't (see below).

I completely agree that as a hermeneutical principle, the concept of salvation in the Bible is not limited to eternal life and/or forgiveness of sins. Paul says that women shall be saved in childbearing (1 Tim. 2:15) and Jesus uses the word "saved" in reference to physical healing. But here in Jude 1:5 it seems that he is indeed using salvation as a way of describing eternal life by analogy with the Exodus deliverance and subsequent wilderness wanderings. That's why he uses the words "saved" vs. "destroyed." The "salvation" in Exodus was deliverance from Egypt (not eternal life), and the "destruction" in the wilderness was physical death (not eternal death). But Jude's appropriation of the OT metaphor serves to instruct his audience about eternal life and eternal death. He certainly isn't warning them of physical death, is he? For first century Christians, it was precisely those who remained most faithful who ended up persecuted and martyred, i.e. "destroyed" if we insist on maintaining the earthly destruction that was in view in the OT narrative!
Who was destroyed, according to Jude?
 
Gods grace is revealed clearly in that scripture that he has given man the ability using his free will to choose him, to choose either life or death. I can't see how that can be argued.
Progressive revelation highlights your misunderstanding (Jn 6:37, 44, 65, et. al.).
 
Gods grace is revealed clearly in that scripture that he has given man the ability using his free will to choose him, to choose either life or death. I can't see how that can be argued.

Okay, so if it is so "clearly", please QUOTE the verse that mentions, "he has given man the ability using his free will".

I'll wait...
 
Why would God grant that ability to someone who didn't want to hear, who's heart was far from him?
Because of Unmerited Election...

But not to Rabbit Trail; your question isn't a rebuttal to God Circumcising our Ears, is it?
 
Why would God grant that ability to someone who didn't want to hear, who's heart was far from him?

Rom 9:13-18 ... Just as it is written: “Jacob I have loved, but Esau I have hated.”

14 What shall we say then? There is no injustice with God, is there? Far from it! 15 For He says to Moses, “I will have mercy on whomever I have mercy, and I will show compassion to whomever I show compassion.” 16 So then, it does not depend on the person who wants it nor the one who runs, but on God who has mercy. 17 For the Scripture says to Pharaoh, “For this very reason I raised you up, in order to demonstrate My power in you, and that My name might be proclaimed throughout the earth.” 18 So then He has mercy on whom He desires, and He hardens whom He desires.
 
Why would God grant that ability to someone who didn't want to hear, who's heart was far from him?

Why don't you ask God?

It's a very POOR hermeneutic that jumps to unwarranted conclusion of, "If I, a sinner, with only a dark limited knowledge, doesn't know why God does something, then that must mean that God never did it, because I understand things better than God."

This is why rationalization is worthless.
 
Deuteronomy 30:11-19

The Offer of Life or Death​

11 Now what I am commanding you today is not too difficult for you or beyond your reach. 12 It is not up in heaven, so that you have to ask, “Who will ascend into heaven to get it and proclaim it to us so we may obey it?” 13 Nor is it beyond the sea, so that you have to ask, “Who will cross the sea to get it and proclaim it to us so we may obey it?” 14 No, the word is very near you; it is in your mouth and in your heart so you may obey it.

15 See, I set before you today life and prosperity, death and destruction. 16 For I command you today to love the Lord your God, to walk in obedience to him, and to keep his commands, decrees and laws; then you will live and increase, and the Lord your God will bless you in the land you are entering to possess.

17 But if your heart turns away and you are not obedient, and if you are drawn away to bow down to other gods and worship them, 18 I declare to you this day that you will certainly be destroyed. You will not live long in the land you are crossing the Jordan to enter and possess.

19 This day I call the heavens and the earth as witnesses against you that I have set before you life and death, blessings and curses. Now choose life, so that you and your children may live
Perhaps you didn't notice, but Deuteronomy was written to Israel UNDER LAW. The principle of being under law is "Do this and I will bless you; do that and I will curse you.". It is absolutely NOTHING to do with salvation by grace through faith!

Eph. 2:8-10 (Webster)
8 For by grace are ye saved through faith; and that not of yourselves: it is the gift of God:
9 Not by works, lest any man should boast.
10 For we are his workmanship, created in Christ Jesus to good works, which God hath before ordained that we should walk in them.

This is the New Covenant. You appear to want to be in the Old Covenant...
 
Yes, salvation is all of grace; all man can do is cry out for mercy.
Then it is not all of grace, is it? If there is even the slightest thing that fallen man contributes to his own salvation, apart from the sin that makes it necessary, then it is not all of grace.

Sinful man will not cry out for mercy (in faith), because he hates the light and will not come to it; he his hostile towards God and cannot please him; and he does not receive the things of the Spirit of God (e.g. the gospel).
 
Just in case you think I am pitting scripture against scripture, here is some more about man's ability to choose.

Joshua 24:15​

15 But if serving the Lord seems undesirable to you, then choose for yourselves this day whom you will serve, whether the gods your ancestors served beyond the Euphrates, or the gods of the Amorites, in whose land you are living. But as for me and my household, we will serve the Lord.”
Oh boy!

That was Israel UNDER LAW, again. They were being asked, sarcastically, to choose between two sets of idols, if they didn't want to serve the Lord. Not only that, but there is not the slightest mention of their alleged "ability to choose", only that they should choose what they want (in other words, their will is a slave to their desire).
 
His post bleeds through with the implication that he (and others) are chosen because of the goodness of their hearts.

"Why are you in heaven, and I'm in hell?"

"Because my heart was close to Him, and yours wasn't!"

That's not grace, it's merit.
After Grace, their hearts are good. I have no idea why this prevening Grace Truth doesn't sit well with them 🤔
 
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